Regulation for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act - English

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Regulation for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act

Order of the Ministry of Transport No. 56 of July 31, 1952

Chapter I General Provisions

(Air Navigation Facilities)

Article 1Air navigation facilities under the provisions of paragraph (5) of Article 2 of the Civil Aeronautics Act (Act No. 231 of 1952, hereinafter referred to as the "Act") are as follows:

(i)radio navigation aids that aid the navigation of an aircraft by means of radio waves

(ii)aeronautical lighting that aids the navigation of an aircraft by means of lights

(iii)obstacle markings that are designed to make an aircraft recognize the existence of objects which may prevent the navigation of the aircraft by colors or shapes for any aircraft flying during the daytime

(Length of Heliport Final Approach Area)

Article 1-2The length of heliport final approach area as specified by the Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in paragraph (7) of Article 2 of the Act is the length of not more than 1,000 meters as specified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(Slope of Approach Surface)

Article 2The slopes of approach surface which is a horizontal plane as specified by the Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in paragraph (8) of Article 2 of the Act are as follows:

(i)one-fiftieth in the case of a landing area used for the landing of aircraft using an instrument landing system or used for the landing guided by air traffic controller using precision approach radar

(ii)slopes specified in the following table, which are categorized according to the type of airport, etc. and class of landing are in the case of landing area (excluding those specified in the preceding item) if it is an onshore airport, etc. and water airport, etc.

Categories of Airports	a	Gradient
Onshore Airports	From A to D	1/40th
	E and F	Gradient of more than 1/40th and not more than 1/30th as specified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism
	G	1/25th
	H and J	1/20th
Water Airports	A and B	1/40th
	C and D	1/30th
	E	1/20th

(iii)slopes of more than one-eighth as specified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism in the case of landing area (excluding those prescribed in item (i)) of heliport; provided however, that it is deemed to be particularly necessary taking into account the geographical conditions of the heliport, slopes of more than one-twentieth and not more than one-eighth as specified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism

(Radial Lengths of Horizontal Surfaces)

Article 3The radial lengths of horizontal surfaces as specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in paragraph (9) of Article 2 of the Act are as follows:

(i)lengths specified in the following table, which are determined according to the type of airport, etc. and the class of landing area (the longest landing area in the case of airports, etc. having more than 2 landing areas), in the case of onshore airport, etc. and water airport, etc.

Categories of Airports	Classes of Landing Strip	Radius
Onshore Airports	A	4,000 meters
	B	3,500 meters
	C	3,000 meters
	D	2,500 meters
	E	2,000 meters
	F	1,800 meters
	G	1,500 meters
	H	1,000 meters
	J	800 meters
Water Airports	A	4,000 meters
	B	3,500 meters
	C	3,000 meters
	D	2,500 meters
	E	2,000 meters

(ii)lengths of not more than 200 meters as specified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism in the case of heliports

(Slope of Heliport Transitional Surface)

Article 3-2(1)Slope of heliport transitional surface as specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in paragraph (10) of Article 2 of the Act is one-half.

(2)Notwithstanding the provisions of the preceding paragraph, if the slope of transitional surface at the one long side of landing area (hereinafter referred to as "long side A" in this paragraph) includes another long side (hereinafter referred to as "long side B" in this paragraph) within the distance longer twice the length of the short side of the landing area of long side B of outside landing area and no object is projected from the plane with the slopes of one-tenth above the outside of landing area; slopes may be specified as follows;

(i)if there is no object projected from the horizontal plane including the highest point of the landing area within the distance of three-fourths diameter length of the rotary wings of helicopters for which the heliport located outside the longer side A is expected to be used; slopes of more than one-half as specified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism

(ii)in any case than that prescribed in the preceding item, slopes of between one-half and one over one as specified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism

(Aeronautical Lighting)

Article 4Aeronautical lighting as specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in paragraph (11) of Article 2 of the Act is as follows:

(i)aeronautical beacons mean facilities that aid the navigation of an aircraft at night or under the instrument meteorological conditions

(ii)aerodrome lighting means facilities that aid aircraft takeoffs or landings as specified in Article 114

(iii)obstacle lights means facilities that are designed to make an aircraft recognize the existence of an object which may prevent the navigation

(Instrument Meteorological Conditions)

Article 5Low visual meteorological conditions as specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in paragraph (15) of Article 2 of the Act are meteorological conditions (hereinafter referred to as "visual meteorological condition") other than those specified in the following items according to the classification of aircraft specified in the following items:

(i)aircraft that flies at altitudes above 3,000 meters (excluding aircraft specified in items (iii) and (iv)):weather conditions that meet the following requirements;

(a)flight visibility is over 8,000 meters

(b)there is no clouds is within the vertical distance of 300 meters above and below the aircraft respectively

(c)there is no clouds within the horizontal distance of 1,500 meters from the aircraft.

(ii)aircraft that flies at altitudes lower than 3,000 meters (excluding aircraft specified in the following item and item (iv)):weather conditions specified according to the classification of aircraft specified in the following items

(a)aircraft that flies in air traffic control area (hereinafter referred to as a "traffic control area"), air traffic control zone (hereinafter referred to as "control zone") or air traffic information zone (hereinafter referred to as "information zone"):weather conditions that meet the following requirements;

1.flight visibility is over 5,000 meters

2.there is no clouds within the vertical distance of 150 meters above and 300 meters below the aircraft

3.there is no clouds within the horizontal distance of 600 meters from the aircraft.

(b)aircraft that flies in the airspace other than the control area, control zone and information zone:weather conditions that meet the following requirements;

1.flight visibility is over 1,500 meters.

2.there is no clouds within the vertical distance of 150 meters above and 300 meters below the aircraft.

3.there is no clouds within the horizontal distance of 600 meters from the aircraft.

(iii)aircraft that flies at altitudes lower than 300 meters from the ground surface or the water surface in the airspace other than the control area, the control zone and the information zone (excluding aircraft specified in the following item):weather conditions that meet the following requirements; (excluding those specified in (a) in case of a helicopter that flies at the speed which enables the pilot to avoid collision with other object)

(a)flight visibility is over 1,500 meters.

(b)aircraft may fly away from clouds and the pilot may continue to see the ground surface or the water surface.

(iv)aircraft that is ready to take off or land at an airport, etc. within the control zone or information zone or at an airport, etc. outside the control zone and information zone designated by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism in the public notice:weather conditions that meet the following requirements;

(a)ground visibility is more than 5,000 meters (more than 8,000 meters if airport, etc. is located within the control zone which is designated by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism in the public notice).

(b)height of clouds is more than 300 meters (more than 450 meters if the airport is the one designated by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism in the public notice, as specified in (a)) from the ground surface or water surface.

(Visual Flight Rules)

Article 5-2Visual Flight Rules (VFR) means rules other than instrument flight rules.

(Gliders)

Article 5-3Gliders are classified into 4 categories as follows:

(i)a powered glider (meaning a powered glider specified as a powered glider in the airworthiness category prescribed in Annex 1)

(ii)soaring gliders (meaning gliders specified as acrobatic glider A and utility glider U in the airworthiness category prescribed in Annex 1 excluding secondary and primary gliders)

(iii)secondary gliders (among utility gliders U in the airworthiness category specified in Annex 1, gliders which are not suitable for acrobatic flight and aircraft towing but suitable for winch towing (including automobile towing; the same applies in the following item))

(iv)primary gliders (among utility gliders U in the airworthiness category specified in Annex 1, gliders which are not suitable for acrobatic flight, aircraft towing and winch towing)

(Flight Manual)

Article 5-4The Flight Manual means the documents that include the following information:

(i)general description of the aircraft

(ii)matters relating to aircraft operating limitations

(iii)various systems that must be operated and other actions that need to be taken in case of emergency

(iv)operation procedures of various systems under normal conditions

(v)aircraft performance

(vi)particulars relating to aircraft noise

(vii)particulars relating to engine emission

(Document for Maintenance Procedures)

Article 5-5The document for maintenance procedures mean the document that includes the following particulars:

(i)description of aircraft structures and its equipments and systems

(ii)methods for periodical inspection of the aircraft, methods for correcting malfunction occurred to aircraft and other particulars relating to aircraft maintenance

(iii)mandatory replacement limit for using engine, propeller, and equipment specified in paragraph (1) of Article 31, which are installed in the aircraft

(iv)other necessary matters

(Aircraft Maintenance and Alternation)

Article 5-6Details of maintenance or alteration work are as prescribed in the following table based on the category of work specified in that table.

Work Categories			Description of Work
Maintenance	Preventive Maintenance	Minor Preventive Maintenance	Replacement for standard equipment or parts without adjustment of rigging or clearance and complex assembly work under simple preventive maintenance work
		General Preventive Maintenance	Preventive maintenance work other than minor preventive maintenance
	Repair	Slight Repair	Repair work whose effect on airworthiness remains minor, which is not complex, and is not required operational check of power system and other complex checks for confirmation of the work
		Minor Repair	Repair work other than slight repair and major repair
		Major Repair	Any of the following repair work
			(i) Repair work listed in the following items and other complex repair work that has a significant effect on airworthiness
			(a) Stretching, splicing, welding or similar work that is likely to contribute to a considerable effect on strength of member of primary structure
			(b) Work that requires complex or special technique or equipment
			(ii) Repair work that uses equipment or parts whose specification is not approved by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism as referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 14 of the Act
Alteration	Minor Alteration		Alteration that does not have a significant effect on weight, strength, function of the engine, flight performance, and other airworthiness of aircraft and that uses equipment or parts whose specification is approved by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism as referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 14 of the Act
	Major Alteration		Alteration other than minor alteration

(Design Changes)

Article 6Categories and details of design changes are as prescribed in the following table.

Categories of Design Changes	Details of Design Changes
Minor Changes	Changes that do not have a serious effect on weight of the aircraft, strength of the aircraft, function of the engine, flight performance and other airworthiness of aircraft
Major Changes	Changes other than minor changes

Chapter II Aircraft Registration Certificate

(Aircraft Registration Certificate)

Article 7Format of aircraft registration certificate under Article 6 of the Act is the same as the Form No.3.

Article 8Any person who has registered the transfer or alteration of aircraft must obtain a renewed aircraft registration certificate.

Article 9Any person who has lost, torn, or gotten the aircraft registration certificate dirty and intends to apply for reissuance of aircraft registration certificate must submit a request for reissuance of the aircraft registration certificate (Form No.4) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism along with the currently owned aircraft registration certificate (except the case in which the certificate is lost).

Article 10If the registration of aircraft is deleted, an owner of a registered aircraft must return the aircraft registration certificate immediately.

(Stamping Position of Registration Code)

Article 11The aircraft registration codes under the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 8-3 of the Act must be engraved on the frame of the aircraft.

Chapter III Safety of Aircraft

Section 1 Airworthiness Certification

Article 12Gliders specified in paragraph (1) of Article 10 of the Act are primary gliders.

(Airworthiness Certification)

Article 12-2(1)Any person who intends to apply for airworthiness certification specified in paragraph (1) of Article 10 of the Act or paragraph (1) of Article 10-2 of the Act must submit an airworthiness certificate application form (Form No.7) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism or the airworthiness inspector.

(2)Document which should be attached to the written application referred to in the preceding paragraph and the time to submit the document depend on the types of airworthiness certificates specified in the following table:

	Classification			Documents to be Attached	Period for Submission
(i)	Any aircraft whose type is different from that of the aircraft for which type certificate referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 12 of the Act (excluding aircraft listed in (iii)) has been granted.	Aircraft manufactured in Japan		(i) design plans	At the commencement of designing
				(ii) design documents	Prior to the commencement of manufacturing
				(iii) design drawings
				(iv) parts list
				(v) manufacturing plans
				(vi) flight manual	Prior to the inspection of current condition
				(vii) document for maintenance procedures
				(viii) documents that provide necessary particulars for computing the weight and the center of gravity of an aircraft
				(ix) documents certifying that the confirmation of inspection is completed pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 39-4 (limited to aircraft listed in items (iv) and (v) of paragraph (5) of Article 10 of the Act.).
				(x) beyond what is set forth in the preceding items, documents that provide reference information
		Aircraft other than those manufactured in Japan		(i) documents and drawings which can certify that an aircraft conforms to the standards set forth in paragraph (4) of Article 10 of the Act	By requested inspection date
				(ii) flight manual
				(iii) documents issued by governmental institutions of a country of manufacture that certify airworthiness, noise level or engine emissions of an aircraft
				(iv) In case of an aircraft which has been used for flights, documents that provide the total flight hours and flight hours after the last overhaul inspection as well as technical records of maintenance or alteration thereof
				(v) document for maintenance procedures
				(vi) documents that provide necessary particulars for computing the weight and the center of gravity of an aircraft
				(vii) beyond what is set forth in the preceding three items, documents that provide reference information
(ii)	an aircraft which has obtained a type certificate referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 12 of the Act (excluding aircraft listed in (iii))	Aircraft manufactured in Japan	Aircraft other than those listed in item (i) of paragraph (6)of Article 10 of the Act	(i) manufacturing plans	Prior to the commencement of manufacturing
				(ii) flight manual	Prior to the inspection of current condition
				(iii) documents that provide necessary particulars for computing the weight and the center of gravity of an aircraft
				(iv) beyond what is set forth in the preceding three items, documents that provide reference information
			Aircraft listed in item (i) of paragraph (6) of Article 10 of the Act	(i) a statement of aircraft conformity which is obtained pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 41 (limited to the one which is obtained within 15 days prior to the requested date of inspection, hereinafter the same applies in this Table)	By requested inspection date
				(ii) flight manual
				(iii) documents that provide necessary particulars for computing the weight and the center of gravity of an aircraft
				(iv) beyond what is set forth in the preceding three items, documents that provide reference information
		Aircraft other than those manufactured in Japan		(i) flight manual	By requested inspection date
				(ii) documents issued by governmental institutions of a country of manufacture that certify airworthiness, noise level or engine emissions of an aircraft
				(iii) in case of an aircraft which has been used for flights, documents that provide the total flight hours and flight hours after the last overhaul inspection of the aircraft as well as technical records of maintenance or alteration thereof
				(iv) documents that provide necessary particulars for computing the weight and the center of gravity of an aircraft
				(v) beyond what is set forth in each of the preceding items, documents that provide reference information
(iii)	an aircraft which has obtained airworthiness certificate set forth in paragraph (1) of Article 10 or paragraph (1) of Article 10-2 of the Act	Aircraft other than aircraft listed in item (iii)of paragraph (6) of Article 10 of the Act		(i) flight manual	By requested inspection date
				(ii) documents that provide the total flight hours and flight hours after the last overhaul inspection of an aircraft as well as technical records of maintenance or alteration thereof
				(iii) documents that provide storage conditions during the suspension of aircraft use
				(iv) documents that provide necessary particulars for computing the weight and the center of gravity of an aircraft
				(v) beyond what is set forth in each of the preceding items, documents that provide reference information
		法第十条第六項第三号に掲げる航空機Aircraft listed in item (iii) of paragraph (6) of Article 10 of the Act		(i) a statement of aircraft conformity which is obtained pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 41
				(i) flight manual
				(iii) documents that provide necessary particulars for computing the weight and the center of gravity of an aircraft
				(iv) beyond what is set forth in the preceding three items, documents that provide reference information

Article 12-3(1)If the aircraft use referred to in in paragraph (3) of Article 10 of the Act (including as applies mutatis mutandis to paragraph (2) of Article 10-2 of the Act; hereinafter the same applies in this Article) is designated, airworthiness category as specified in Annex No.1 must be defined.

(2)Aircraft operating limitations as specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in paragraph (3) of Article 10 of the Act are limitations on the aircraft referred to in item (ii) of Article 5-4.

Article 13Designation under paragraph (3) of Article 10 of the Act (including as applies mutatis mutandis to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 10-2 of the Act) must be implemented by delivering documents stating the particulars set forth in the preceding Article (hereinafter referred to as "document of designation for operating limitations") to an applicant.

Article 14(1)Standards referred to in item (i) of paragraph (4) of Article 10 of the Act (including as applied mutatis mutandis to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 10-2 of the Act) are standards specified by Annex 1 (in the case of components and parts; standards specified in Annex 1 or the types or the specifications approved by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism (in the case of radio station under the Radio Act (Act No. 131 of 1950); technical standards specified by that Act)).

(2)Aircraft specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism with regard to matters provided in item (ii) of paragraph (4) of Article 10 of the Act (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 10-2 of the Act; hereinafter the same applies in this paragraph) are aircraft subject to Annex 2 and standards of that item are standards specified in Annex 2.

(3)Aircraft specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism with regard to matters provided in item (iii) of paragraph (4) of Article 10 of the Act (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 10-2 of the Act; hereinafter the same applies in this paragraph) are aircraft subject to Annex 3 and standards of that item are standards specified in Annex 3.

Article 14-2(1)Any person who intends to apply for approval of the types or the specifications under paragraph (1) of the preceding Article must submit a written application for component type (specification) approval (Form No.7-2) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(2)The following documents must be attached to the written application referred to in the preceding paragraph:

(i)documents that state the type or specification

(ii)documents and drawings certifying that the design pertaining to the type or specification conform to the type or specification under the preceding item

(iii)documents certifying that the uniformity of components or parts concerning the type or specification is assured

(iv)beyond what is set forth in the preceding three itmes, documents that include the reference information

(3)A type approval or specification approval under paragraph (1) of the preceding Article are granted by issuing a component type (specification) approval (Form No.7-3) to an applicant.

(4)Any person who obtained an approval under paragraph (1) of the preceding Article must obtain an approval from the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism when the person intends to change the approved type or specification.

(5)The provisions of paragraphs (1) through (3) apply mutatis mutandis to the case referred to in the preceding paragraph.

(6)When a person who obtained an approval under paragraph (1) of the preceding Article and been certified for the capability specified in item (v) of paragraph (1) of Article 20 of the Act is certified that the design change pertaining to the approved type or specification (limited to minor changes under the design change categories listed in the table under Article 6) has been examined pursuant to the provisions of Article 35, item (vii) and is confirmed that the design change comply with the type or specification pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 40, with regard to the application of the provisions of paragraph (4), the person is deemed to have obtained the approval referred to in that paragraph.

(7)A person who confirmed the type or specification pursuant to the provisions of the preceding paragraph must submit a written notice stating the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism without delay.

(i)the name and address

(ii)the name and location of the approved organization

(iii)the number of the component type (specification) approval, and the name of type or specification of component or parts

(iv)details of the design change that has been confirmed

(8)The following documents must be attached to the written notice referred to in the preceding paragraph:

(i)documents specified in items of paragraph (2) (limited to the changed part)

(ii)a copy of the statement of design conformity issued pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 41

(9)The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism may revoke the approval when it is obvious that the safety or uniformity of any components or parts of the approved type or specification referred to in paragraph (1) of the preceding Article is not assured or when the components or parts are not used.

(10)A person who manufactures components or parts of the approved type or specification referred to in the paragraph (1) of the preceding Article must affix an indication to the components or parts to the effect that the approval referred to in that paragraph has been granted.

(11)Indication method to be used pursuant to the provisions of the preceding paragraph is designated by a component type (specification) approval under paragraph (3).

Article 15(1)Upon receipt of an application, the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism inspects whether or not the components or parts comply with the types referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 14 and certifies that the components or parts comply with the relevant types when the minister finds that they comply with the types.

(2)Type of inspection to be performed pursuant to the provisions of the preceding paragraph are designated by a component type (specifications) approval under paragraph (3) of the preceding Article.

(3)Certified components or parts referred to in paragraph (1) are deemed to comply with the standards set forth in item (i) of paragraph (4) of Article 10 of the Act in the inspections referred to in paragraph (4) of Article 10 of the Act or paragraph (2) of Article 17 of the Act.

Article 16Form of airworthiness certificate under paragraph (7) of Article 10 of the Act as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (7) of Article 10 of the Act or paragraph (2) of Article 10-2 is the same as Form No.8.

Article 16-2When an aircraft operator who has lost, torn or gotten an airworthiness certificate soiled and intends to apply for reissue of airworthiness certificate, the person must submit a request for reissuance (Form No.8-2) to the person who issued the airworthiness certificate, together with the airworthiness certificate (excluding the case when it is lost).

Article 16-3A person who holds or retains an airworthiness certificate which falls under any of the following items must return the airworthiness certificate to the person who issued it without delay.In this case, a document that states the reason to return the certificate must be attached.

(i)airworthiness certificate whose validity period is expired

(ii)former airworthiness certificate when a new airworthiness certificate is issued before the effective period of the airworthiness certification expires

(iii)airworthiness certificate when the airworthiness certificate becomes invalid

(Airworthiness Inspectors)

Article 16-4Qualifications and experiences under paragraph (1) of Article 10-2 of the Act are as follows:

(i)qualifications

(a)a person turns 23 years old by the date on which the person files a requests for approval referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 10-2 of the Act.

(b)a person who holds a certificate of competency for the qualification of first class aircraft maintenance technician or second class aircraft maintenance technician (certificates restricted to powered gliders) or a certificate of competency (restricted to the matters related to airframe structures, aircraft components, piston engines and propellers) for the qualification of aircraft overhaul technician, or has competence which is recognized as equal to or greater than these qualifications.

(ii)experiences

(a)a person who has engaged in manufacturing, alteration or repair, or inspection of gliders more than two years;

(b)a person who completed the training provided by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism regarding the standards specified in item (ii) and item (iii) of paragraph (4) of Article 10 of the Act.

Article 16-5Gliders under paragraph (1) of Article 10 of the Act are secondary gliders, soaring gliders and powered gliders.

Article 16-6None of the following person may apply for the certification referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 10-2 of the Act:

(i)a person who does not have Japanese nationality

(ii)a person whose certificate has been revoked pursuant to the provisions of Article 16-11 of the Act and two years have not passed since the certificate was revoked

(iii)a person who has been sentenced to imprisonment without work or severer punishment and two years have not passed since either execution of the sentence was completed or ceased to be subject to the sentence

(iv)an adult ward or a person under curatorship

Article 16-7(1)A person who intends to apply for a certification referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 10-2 of the Act must submit an application for certification of airworthiness inspector including the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism:

(i)name, date of birth and address (if the person has another business office, its name and address must be provided as well)

(ii)if the person is a member of a company or other organizations, the name and location of its principal office

(iii)category and number of the technical certificate

(2)Two copies of photos (of the person's upper body without a hat taken within the past six months which are not affixed to the form, (3 cm height and 2.4 cm width); hereinafter the same applies in this Chapter) and the following documents must be attached to an application form referred to in the preceding paragraph:

(i)an abstract copy of the person's family register

(ii)a certificate of registered information prescribed in paragraph (1) of Article 10 of the Act on Guardianship Registration (Act No. 152 of 1999)

(iii)personal resume

(iv)documents certifying that the person has experience provided by item (ii) of Article 16-4

Article 16-8(1)The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism issues an identification card that identifies the person's status (Form No. 8-3, hereinafter referred to as "identification card of airworthiness inspector") to airworthiness inspector when the minister grant an approval set forth in paragraph (1) of Article 10-2.

(2)Airworthiness inspector, when the inspector engages in their duties, must carry an identification card of airworthiness inspector specified in the preceding paragraph.

Article 16-9When an airworthiness inspector who has lost, torn or gotten the identification card dirty or has changed their name or address intends to apply for reissuance of the identification card of airworthiness inspector, the inspector must submit an application for reissuance stating the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism together with two copies of their photo and the identification card of airworthiness inspector (excluding the case when the certificate is lost).

(i)name and address

(ii)approval number

(iii)reasons to apply for reissuance of the certificate

Article 16-10(1)Airworthiness inspector must prepare a report and an inspection record stating particulars specified in the following items, and submit them to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism without delay when the inspector granted an airworthiness certificate referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 10-2 of the Act or performed inspection pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 16 of the Act; provided, however, that the inspection record are to be submitted only when the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism requests it.

(i)report

(a)name and address

(b)approval number

(c)registration number of the glider

(d)type, manufacturing number, name of manufacturer and manufacturing date of the glider

(e)name and address of the applicant

(f)date and place of inspection

(g)issuance date of airworthiness certificate and the airworthiness certificate number (limited to the case when an airworthiness certification referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 10-2 of the Act is granted)

(ii)inspection record

(a)when an airworthiness certificate refferred to in paragraph (1) of Article 10-2 of the Act is granted

1. Particulars concerning inspection of materials, parts and assembling parts

2. Particulars concerning internal inspection, general assembling inspection and flight inspection

(b)when inspection referred to in paragraph (2) of Article 16 of the Act is performed

1. Particulars concerning the repair and alteration (design documents and design drawings must be attached)

2. Particulars concerning the inspection of materials, parts and assembling parts

3. Particulars concerning the general assembling inspection and flight inspection

(2)A copy of the flight manual of the glider must be attached to the report referred to in the preceding paragraph (limited to that pertaining to airworthiness certificate referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 10-2 of the Act); provided, however, that this does not apply to a glider for which airworthiness certificate referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 10 of the Act or paragraph (1) of Article 10-2 of the Act has been granted and the particulars of its flight manual have not been changed.

(3)If an airworthiness certificate referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 10-2 of the Act is granted to a glider which is different from the one for which the type certificate referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 12 of the Act has been granted, design documents and design drawings of the glider must be attached to the report under paragraph (1).

Article 16-11The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism may revoke the certificate for airworthiness inspector if the inspector falls under any of the following items:

(i)when the inspector dies or has been declared disappeared

(ii)if the inspector falls under item (i), (iii) or (iv) of Article 16-6

(iii)if the inspector violates the provisions of the Act or an order under the Act

(iv)if the inspector is certified through illegal means

(v)when the certificate of competency of the inspector is revoked or the inspector is ordered to suspend their aeronautics services

(vi)if an inspector engages in misconduct or commits a serious error in performing their duties as an airworthiness inspector

Article 16-12With regard to the certificate of airworthiness inspector, the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism gives a public notice when the minister receives a notice of loss of the certificate referred to in Article 283 or an application for reissuance of the certificate referred to in paragraph (9) of Article 16 of the Act, or revokes the certificate pursuant to the provisions of the preceding Article.

Article 16-13When the certificate of the airworthiness inspector is revoked pursuant to the provisions of the preceding Article or the lost certificate of airworthiness inspector is found after the inspector received a reissued certificate, a person who holds or retains the certificate must return it to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism without delay, along with the document stating the relevant reason.

(Permission for Test Flights)

Article 16-14A person who intends to obtain a permission referred to in the proviso to paragraph (1) of Article 11 of the Act (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (3) of that Article, paragraph (3) of Article 16 of the Act and paragraph (3) of Article 19 of the Act) must submit a written application including the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism:

(i)name and address

(ii)type of the aircraft and nationality and registration marks of the aircraft

(iii)outline of the flight plan (purpose of flight, date and time and route must be specified)

(iv)name and qualifications of an operator

(v)name of fellow passenger and their purpose

(vi)the details of particulars that may go beyond the designated use or operating limitations, in the case of a person who intends to obtain a permission referred to in the proviso to paragraph (1) of Article 11 as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (3) of Article 11 of the Act

(vii)the details of repair, alteration or maintenance pertaining the permission in the case of a person who intends to obtain a permission referred to in the proviso to paragraph (1) of Article of the Act as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (3) of Article 16 of the Act or paragraph (3) of Article 19 of the Act

(viii)any other particulars that may be used as reference

(Type Certificate)

Article 17(1)A person who intends to apply for type certificate referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 12 of the Act must submit an application for type certificate (Form No. 9) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(2)The document which must be attached to the application referred to in the preceding paragraph and the time to submit the document depends on the categories specified in the following table:

	Classification	Documents to be Attached	Period for Submission
(i)	an aircraft for which any foreign state that is a Contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, performed a type certification or other acts in regard to designs of the relevant type	(i) documents and drawings which are sufficient enough to certify that the aircraft conforms to the standards set forth in paragraph (4)of Article 10 of the Act	By requested inspection date
		(ii) documents issued by governmental institutions of the country certifying that the country performed a type certification and other acts
		(iii) drawing list
		(iv)parts list
		(v) specifications
		(vi) flight manual
		(vii) document for maintenance procedures
		(viii) documents that provide necessary particulars for computing the weight and the center of gravity of an aircraft
		(ix) beyond what is set forth in the preceding items, documents that provide reference information
(ii)	Aircraft other than those listed in item (i)	(i) design plans	At the commencement of designing
		(ii) design documents	Prior to the commencement of manufacturing
		(iii) drawing list
		(iv) design drawings
		(v) parts list
		(vi) manufacturing plans
		(vii) specifications	Prior to the inspection of current condition
		(viii) flight manual
		(ix) document for maintenance procedures
		(x) documents that provide necessary particulars for computing the weight and the center of gravity of an aircraft
		(xi) documents certifying that the confirmation of inspection is completed pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 39-4 (limited to aircraft listed in items (ii) of paragraph (2) of the following Article)
		(xii) beyond what is set forth in the preceding items, documents that provide reference information

Article 18(1)Inspections to conduct type certification are performed for the design of the relevant type, and manufacturing process and current conditions of one aircraft pertaining to its design.

(2)Notwithstanding the provisions of the preceding paragraph, some of the inspections for design or manufacturing process may be omitted for aircraft specified in the following items:

(i)an aircraft that any foreign state, a Contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, conducted a type certification or performed other acts in regard to the designs of the relevant type

(ii)an aircraft which was designed and post-design inspections thereof have been conducted by a person who files a request for type certification referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 12 of the Act, who has obtained the certificate referred to in item (i) of paragraph (1) of Article 20 of the Act for the competency referred to in that paragraph, pursuant to the provisions of Article 35, item (vii)

Article 19Format of type certificate under paragraph (3) of Article 12 of the Act is the same as Form No.10.

(Change of Type Certificate)

Article 20(1)A person who intends to obtain an approval referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 13 of the Act must submit a written application for type design change (Form No.11) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, together with the current type certificate and an attached document including particulars pertaining to the relevant changes according to the categories in the table under paragraph (2) of Article 17.

(2)The provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 17 apply mutatis mutandis to the time of submission of the attached document referred to in the preceding paragraph.

Article 21The provisions of Article 18 apply mutatis mutandis to the case referred to in the preceding Article.

Article 22An approval referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 13 of the Act is granted by issuing a new type certificate.

Article 22-2(1)Changes specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in paragraph (4) of Article 13 of the Act are minor changes under the design change categories specified in the table under Article 6, which do not fall under the following changes.

(i)the following design changes of an aircraft referred to in item (ii) of paragraph (4) of Article 10 of the Act and other design changes which are likely to affect the noise of the aircraft

(a)design change accompanied by the change of nacelle shape and other major change of aircraft shape

(b)design change pertaining to an engine or its parts to be installed in an aircraft (limited to noise absorbing materials and other parts which affect the noise of an aircraft)

(c)design change accompanied by any major change of aircraft takeoff and landing performance

(ii)the following design changes for an aircraft referred to in item (iii) of paragraph (4) of Article 10 of the Act and other design changes which are likely to affect engine emissions of the aircraft

(a)design change accompanied by change of sharp of an air intake of engines

(b)design change accompanied by change of engine, fuel system or their parts (limited to combustion chamber and other parts which affect engine emissions) installed in an aircraft

(c)design change accompanied by any major change in engine performance

(2)Notwithstanding the provisions of the preceding paragraph, when a design is changed based on an order of the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 13 of the Act, the change is not included in the change referred to in paragraph (4) of Article 13 of the Act.

Article 22-3(1)A person who intends to submit the notice stating that the person has confirmed the design change pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (5) of Article 13 of the Act, must submit a written notice including the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name and address

(ii)the name and location of the approved organization

(iii)type certificate number and type of the aircraft

(iv)details of the design change that has been confirmed

(2)Following documents must be attached to the notice referred to in the preceding paragraph (limited to the part pertaining to the changes in the case of documents specified in items (i) through (viii)).

(i)design documents

(ii)drawing lists

(iii)design drawings

(iv)parts list

(v)specifications

(vi)flight manual

(vii)document for maintenance procedures

(viii)documents that state necessary particulars for computing the weight and the center of gravity of the aircraft

(ix)a copy of the statement of design conformity issued pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 41

(x)beyond what is set forth in the preceding items, documents that include the particulars that may be used as reference

(Approval for Supplemental Type Certificates for Aircraft Designs)

Article 23(1)A person who intends to request for an approval referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 13-2 of the Act for the partial design change of the aircraft by any person other than a holder of the type certificate for the aircraft for which the type certificate has been granted (hereinafter referred to as supplemental type certificate for aircraft design"), must submit a written application for supplemental type certificate for aircraft design (Form No.11-2) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(2)Any document which must be attached to the written application referred to in the preceding paragraph and the time to submit the document depend on the category specified in the following table:

	Classification	Documents to be Attached	Period for Submission
(i)	Aircraft for which any foreign state that is a Contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, granted approval and performed other acts in regard to supplemental type design thereof	(i) documents and drawings which are sufficient enough to certify that the aircraft conforms to the standards set forth in paragraph (4) of Article 10 of the Act (limited to the part pertaining to changes)	By the requested inspection date
		(ii) documents issued by governmental institutions of the country certifying that the country approved supplemental type design and performed other acts
		(iii) drawing lists
		(iv) parts list
		(v) specifications
		(vi) flight manual (limited to the part pertaining to changes)
		(vii) document for maintenance procedures (limited to the part pertaining to changes)
		(viii) documents that provide necessary particulars for computing the weight and the center or gravity of an aircraft
		(ix) beyond what is set forth in the preceding items, documents that provide reference information
(ii)	Aircrafts other than those listed in item (i)	(i) design plans pertaining to supplemental type design	At the commencement of designing
		(ii) design documents	Prior to the commencement of manufacturing
		(iii) drawing lists
		(iv) design drawings
		(v) parts list
		(vi) manufacturing plans
		(vii) specifications	Prior to the inspection of current condition
		(viii) flight manual (limited to the part pertaining to changes)
		(ix) document for maintenance procedures (limited to the part pertaining to changes)
		(x) documents that provide necessary particulars for computing the weight and the center of gravity of an aircraft
		(xi) documents certifying that the confirmation of inspection is completed pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 39-4 (limited to aircraft listed in items (ii) of paragraph (2) of the following Article)
		(xii) beyond what is set forth in the preceding items, documents that provide reference information

Article 23-2(1)Inspections to grant the supplemental type certificate for aircraft design are performed for the design pertaining to the supplemental type, and manufacturing process and current conditions of one aircraft pertaining to its design.

(2)Notwithstanding the provisions of the preceding paragraph, a part of inspection of design or manufacturing process may be omitted for designs pertaining to supplemental type or the aircraft pertaining to the following designs:

(i)an aircraft for which any foreign state, a Contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation has granted an approval and performed any other acts in regard to supplemental type certificate for the design thereof

(ii)an aircraft which was designed and post-design inspections thereof have been conducted by a person who files a request for approval referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 13-2 of the Act, who has obtained the certificate referred to in Article 20, paragraph (1), item (i) of the Act for the competence referred to in that paragraph, pursuant to the provisions of item (vii) of Article 35

Article 23-3An approval under paragraph (1) of Article 13-2 of the Act is granted by issuing a supplemental type certificate (Form No.11-3) to an applicant.

(Approval for Changes in Supplemental Type Certificates for Aircraft Designs)

Article 23-4(1)A person who intends to obtain an approval referred to in paragraph (3) of Article 13-2 of the Act must submit a request for changes in supplemental type certificate for aircraft design (Form No.11-4) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, together with the current supplemental type certificate for aircraft design and an accompanying document that provides particulars regarding the changes according to the categories specified in the table under paragraph (2) of Article 23.

(2)The provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 23 apply mutatis mutandis to the time when the attached document under the preceding paragraph is submitted.

Article 23-5The provisions of Article 23-2 apply mutatis mutandis to the case referred to in the preceding Article.

Article 23-6An approval referred to in paragraph (3) of Article 13-2 of the Act is granted by issuing a new supplemental type certificate for aircraft design.

Article 23-7(1)Changes specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in paragraph (4) of Article 13-2 of the Act are minor changes under the categories of design changes specified in the table under Article 6, which do not fall under design changes specified in items of paragraph (1) of Article 22-2.

(2)Notwithstanding the provisions of the preceding paragraph, when the design is changed based on an order of the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism under the provision of paragraph (1), Article 13-3 of the Act, the change is not included in the changes referred to in paragraph (4) of Article 13-2 of the Act.

Article 23-8(1)A person who intends to submit the notice stating that the person has confirmed the design change pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (5) of Article 13 of the Act as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (5) of Article 13-2 of the Act, the person must submit a written notice including the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name and address

(ii)the name and location of the approved organization

(iii)number of supplemental type certificate for aircraft design and its details

(iv)details of the design change that has been confirmed

(2)The following documents (limited to the part pertaining to changes in the case of documents prescribed in items (i) through (viii)) must be attached to a written notice referred to in the preceding paragraph.

(i)design documents

(ii)drawing lists

(iii)design drawings

(iv)parts list

(v)specifications

(vi)flight manual

(vii)document for maintenance procedures

(viii)documents that state necessary matters for computing the weight and the center of gravity of the aircraft

(ix)copy of the statement of design conformity issued pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 41

(x)beyond what is set forth in the preceding items, documents that include the particulars used as reference

(Submission of Type Certificate)

Article 23-9A person to whom a type certificate has been granted or whose supplemental type certificate for aircraft design has been approved (hereinafter referred to as a "type certificate, etc." in this Article) must submit the type certificate or the supplemental type certificate for aircraft design pertaining to the type certificate, etc. the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism immediately, when type certificate, etc. is revoked pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 13-3 of the Act.

(Start Date of Valid Period of Airworthiness Certificates)

Article 23-10Start date of valid period of an airworthiness certificate is the date on which the airworthiness certificate pertaining to the airworthiness certification is issued, provided, however, that it starts on the following day of expiration date of the valid period, if a new airworthiness certificate is issued during the period from one month before the expiration date of the valid period to the expiration date.

(Submission of Airworthiness Certificate)

Article 23-11(1)An aircraft operator must submit the airworthiness certificate of the aircraft to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism immediately when the validity of the airworthiness certificate of the aircraft ceases to be effective pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 14-2 of the Act.

(2)An aircraft operator must present the airworthiness certificate or document of designation for operating limitations of the aircraft to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism immediately when the valid period of the aircraft is shortened or designated matters are modified pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 14-2 of the Act.

(Aircraft That Must Not be Used for Air Navigation)

Article 23-12The aircraft specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in item (ii), Article 15 of the Act are the aircraft equipped with turbojet engines or turbofan engines which do not meet the standards under paragraph (2) of Article 14 and its maximum takeoff weight exceeds 34,000 kilograms.

(Repair and Alteration Inspections)

Article 24Any repair or alteration which is subject to inspections referred to in paragraph (1), Article 16 of the Act specified by Order of the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, is listed in each item of the right column in the following table according to the classification of aircraft listed in each item of left column in that table.

Classification of Aircraft	The Scope of Repair or Alteration
(i) an aircraft referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 19 of the Act	Alteration falling under the categories of work listed in the table referred to in Article 5-6
(ii) an aircrafts other than those listed in the preceding item	(a) major repair or alteration falling under the categories of work listed in the table referred to in Article 5-6 (Major repair or major alteration in the case of a glider)
	(b) the following repair or alterations to an aircraft referred to in item (ii) of paragraph (4) of Article 10 of the Act and other repair or alteration which is likely to affect the noise of the aircraft
	1. Any repair or alteration accompanying the change of nacelle shape and other major change of aircraft shape
	2. Any repair or alteration accompanying the change of engine or its parts to be installed in an aircraft (limited to noise absorbing materials and other parts that affect the noise of aircraft)
	3. Any repair or alteration accompanying any major change in the takeoff and landing performance
	(c) the following repair or alteration to an aircraft referred to in item (iii) of paragraph (4)of Article 10 of the Act and other repair or alteration which is likely to affect engine emissions of the aircraft
	1. Any repair or alteration accompanying the change of shape of air intake of engines
	2. Any repair or alteration accompanying the change of engine, fuel system or their parts to be installed in an aircraft (limited to combustion chamber and other parts which affect engine emissions)
	3. Any repair or alteration accompanying any major change in an engine performance

Article 24-2The repair categories prescribed by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, for which inspection under paragraph (1) of Article 16 of the Act is not required are the major repairs under the repair categories listed in the table of Article 5-6, which do not fall under the repair categories listed in the column (b) and (c) of item (ii) of the table under the preceding Article.

Article 25(1)A person who intends to receive inspections specified in paragraph (1) or paragraph (2) of Article 16 of the Act must submit a request for inspection of repair and alteration (Form 12) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism or an airworthiness inspector.

(2)Documents which must be attached to the request form under the preceding paragraph and the time to submit are specified in the following table:

Documents to be Attached	Period for Submission
(i) plans for repair or alteration	Prior to the commencement of work
(ii) flight manual (limited to the part pertaining to changes)	Prior to the inspection of current condition
(iii) document for maintenance procedures (limited to the part pertaining to changes)
(iv) documents that provide necessary particulars for computing the weight and the center of gravity of an aircraft
(v) documents certifying that the confirmation of inspection is completed pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 39-4 (limited to aircraft listed in paragraph (2) of the following Article)
(vi) beyond what is set forth in the preceding items, documents that provide reference information

Article 26(1)Inspections specified in paragraphs (1) or (2) of Article 16 of the Act are performed for plans, processes of aircraft repair or alteration and the current conditions of the aircraft after completion of its repair or alteration.

(2)Notwithstanding the provisions of the preceding paragraph, as for an aircraft which was designed and post-design inspections thereof have been conducted by a person who has obtained the certificate referred to in item (i) of paragraph (1) of Article 20 of the Act for the competency referred to in that paragraph, pursuant to the provisions of item (vii) of Article 35, some of the inspections included in the plans or processes of repair or alteration may be omitted.

Article 26-2When the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism or the airworthiness inspector finds, based on the results of the inspection referred to in paragraph (1) or (2) of Article 16 of the Act, that an aircraft conforms to each standard listed in the right column of the following table according to the classification of aircraft listed in the left column of the table and the repair or alteration categories listed in the middle column of that table, the aircraft is to pass the inspection.

Classification of Aircraft	The Scope of Repair or Alteration	Standards
(i) an aircraft referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 19 of the Act	(a) alteration listed in the right column of item (i) in the table of Article 24 (excluding alterations listed in (b) and (c))	Standards referred to in item (i) of paragraph (4) of Article 10 of the Act
	(b) alteration listed in the right column (b) of item (ii) in the table of Article 24	Standards referred to in items (i) and (ii) of paragraph (4) of Article 10 of the Act
	(c) alteration listed in the right column (c) of item (ii) in the table of Article 24	Standards referred to in items (i) and (iii) of paragraph (4) of Article 10 of the Act
(ii) an aircraft other than those listed in the preceding item	(a) repair or alteration listed in the right column (a) of item (ii) in the table of Article 24 (excluding alterations listed in (b) and (c))	Standards referred to in item (i) of paragraph (4) of Article 10 of the Act
	(b)repair or alteration listed in the right column (b) of item (ii) in the table of Article 24	Standards referred to in items (i) and (ii) of paragraph (4) of Article 10 of the Act
	(c) repair or alteration listed in the right column (c) of item (ii) in the table of Article 24	Standards referred to in items (i) and (iii) of paragraph (4) of Article 10 of the Act

(Spare Parts Certification)

Article 27Components which are critical for the aircraft safety specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in paragraph (1) of Article 17 of the Act are those specified in the following items:

(i)rotor wings

(ii)transmissions

(iii)instruments

(iv)starter, magnet generator, airborne generator, fuel pump, propeller governor, carburetor, hydraulic pump, cabin super-charger, combustion heater for de-icing, de-icing fluid pump, air compressor, vacuum pump, inverter, landing gear, float, ski, skid, constant-speed drive unit for generator, water or alcohol injection pump, exhaust turbine, cabin combustion heater, rudder, elevator, aileron, flap, fuel injection pump, lubricating oil pump, cooling-liquid pump, feathering pump, fuel control unit, de-icing system controller, oxygen regulator, pressure regulator for air-conditioning system, high-pressure air regulator, high-pressure air controller, voltage regulator, high-pressure oil regulator, high-pressure oil controller, oil cooler, cooling-liquid cooler, fuel tank (excluding integral type), oil tank, flight control actuator, landing gear actuator, actuator for power unit, ignition distributor, ignition exciter, engine mount and navigation equipment (excluding radio equipment of radio station under the Radio Act)

Article 28A person who intends to obtain a spare parts certificate referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 17 of the Act must submit a request for spare parts certificate (Form No.13) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

Article 29(1)Inspections under paragraph (2) of Article 17 of the Act are performed for designs, manufacturing processes, processes of maintenance or alteration and current condition.

(2)Notwithstanding the provisions of the preceding paragraph, as for a component which was designed and post-design inspections thereof have been conducted by a person who has obtained the certificate referred to in item (v) of paragraph (1) of Article 20 of the Act for the competency referred to in that paragraph, pursuant to the provisions of item (vii) of Article 35, some of the inspections specified in the respective items may be omitted according to the categories specified in the following items.

(i)component which is manufactured:inspection of design or manufacturing process of the component

(ii)component of which maintenance is performed:inspections of design or maintenance process of the component

(iii)component which is altered:inspections of design or alteration process of the component

Article 30Spare parts certificate set forth in paragraph (2) of Article 17 of the Act are granted by issuing a spare parts certificate (Form No.14) or by indicating that spare part have passed the inspection (Form No.15 or Form No.15-2) for the component that have passed the inspection referred to in that paragraph.

(Imported Components of which Spare Parts Certificate is Deemed to Have been Granted)

Article 30-2Imported components specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in item (iv) of paragraph (3) of Article 17 of the Act are those set forth in the following items:

(i)components for which any foreign state, a Contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation certified their airworthiness or performed other acts to certify the airworthiness thereof

(ii)components that, in a foreign state that has been authorized by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism as the state having the standards and procedures comparable to or better than those of Japan with regard to certification of capacity to manufacture, repair or alter the components, are manufactured, repaired or altered by or airworthiness thereof are confirmed by a person who has obtained the certificate or the like through other acts based on the relevant standards and procedures.

(Lapse of Spare Parts Certificates)

Article 30-3Repair or alteration categories specified by Order of the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in paragraph (4) of Article 17 of the Act includes major repair or alteration (excluding minor alteration of spare parts installed in gliders) of the repair or alteration categories prescribed in the table of Article 5-6.

(Maintenance of Engines)

Article 31(1)Components which are crucial for securing the aircraft safety as specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in Article 18 of the Act mean oil pumps, carburetors, magnet generators, exhaust gas turbines, ignition distributors, fuel control units, fuel injection pumps, engine driven fuel pumps and propeller governors.

(2)The time as specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in Article 18 of the Act is the time as designated in public notice by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism in consideration of the structure and performance of engine, propeller and components listed in the preceding paragraph (hereinafter referred to as an "engine, etc.") and the method as specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in that Article is the overhaul, provided, however that as for an engine, etc. which may be kept in a good condition by maintaining it by using a method other than an overhaul, the amount of time and method designated by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism in consideration of the maintenance condition, structure and performance of the engine at the request of the aircraft operator pertaining to the engine or is the one prescribed in the maintenance manual (limited to the case in which an operator of the engine is an air carrier in Japan and the amount of time and the method is prescribed in the maintenance manual of the air carrier in Japan).

(Aircraft specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 19 of the Act)

Article 31-2An aircraft specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in paragraph (1) of Article 19 of the Act is an aircraft and a rotorcraft with more than 30 seats or its maximum takeoff weight exceeds 15,000 kilogram.

(Minor Preservative Maintenance)

Article 32Minor preservative maintenance as specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in paragraph (1) of Article 19 of the Act is minor preservative maintenance under the categories of work listed in the table of Article 5-6.

(Confirmation of Aircraft Maintenance or Alteration)

Article 32-2Plans for aircraft maintenance or alteration and its processes and the current condition after the relevant work has been completed are to be confirmed pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 19 of the Act, using a signature or a sign and seal on an aircraft flight logbook (glider flight logbook in the case of gliders).

Section 2 Approval of Organizations

(Scope of and Limitations on Services)

Article 33(1)An approval of organization specified in Article 20 paragraph (1) of the Act (hereinafter simply referred to as "approval") is given for one or more of scopes of services listed in the right column of the following table according to the categories of service capabilities listed in the left column of that table:

Classification of Service Capabilities	Scope of Services
(i) services capabilities listed in Article 20, paragraph (1), items (i) through (iv) of the Act	1 Services pertaining to aircraft with a maximum takeoff weight not more than 5,700 kg (excluding rotorcraft)
	2 Services pertaining to aircraft with a maximum takeoff weight more than 5,700 kg (excluding rotorcraft)
	3 Services pertaining to rotorcraft
(i) services capabilities listed in Article 20, paragraph (1), items (v) through (vii) of the Act	1 Services pertaining to piston engines
	2 Services pertaining to turbine engines
	3 Services pertaining to fixed pitch propellers
	4 Services pertaining to variable pitch propellers
	5 Services pertaining to rotors
	6 Services pertaining to transmissions
	7 Services pertaining to mechanical instruments
	8 Services pertaining to electrical instruments
	9 Services pertaining to gyro instruments
	10 Services pertaining to electronic instruments
	11 Services pertaining to mechanical accessories
	12 Services pertaining to electrical accessories
	13 Services pertaining to electronic accessories
	14 Services pertaining to radio communication equipment (excluding radio facilities of the radio stations subject to the Radio Act)
	15 Services pertaining to main component parts
	16 Other services pertaining to components designated in public notice by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism

(2)Restrictions listed in the right column of the following table may be imposed on an approval to provide a service according to the categories listed in the left column of that table.

Classification of Approval	Limitations
(i) approval for service capabilities listed in item (i) in the table of the preceding paragraph	Limitations to the types of aircraft, limitations to the categories of services or description of services listed in the table of Article 5-6, limitations to the categories of design changes, details of design changes listed in the table of Article 6 or other limitations.
(ii) approval for service capabilities listed in item (ii) of the table of the preceding paragraph	Limitations to the kinds and types of components, limitations to the work categories or description of work listed in the table of Article 5-6, limitations to the categories of design changes, details of design changes listed in the table of Article 6 or other limitations.

(Request for Approval to Provide Services)

Article 34A person who intends to request for approval to provide a service must submit a request for approval of an organization to provide a service (Form No.16) for each organization to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, together with documents explaining that the organization conforms to the technical standards referred to in the following Article.

(Criteria for Approval of Organizations to Provide Services)

Article 35Technical standards referred to in Article 20 paragraph (1) of the Act are as follows:

(i)an applicant must possess the following facilities;

(a)facilities necessary for services pertaining to the approval (hereinafter referred to as "certified services" in this Section)

(b)workshop having appropriate space necessary for the certified services, equipment for temperature and humidity control, lighting facilities and other facilities

(c)facilities to appropriately store the materials, parts and components required for the certified services

(ii)each organization that provides services must appropriately share the certified services and their respective authorities and responsibility are clearly defined.

(iii)personnel capable of properly performing the certified services are appropriately assigned to each organization specified in the preceding item.

(iv)personnel who completed educations and trainings regarding the Civil Aeronautics Act and operations for quality control system under item (vi) and satisfies requirements listed in the middle column of that table or a person who is certified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism as having the ability comparable to or superior to that of the person is selected as the person who confirms inspections listed in the right column in that table. (hereinafter referred to as "certifying staff"), in accordance with the categories of the certified services listed in the left column in the following table.

Classification of Certified Services	Requirements for Certifying Staff	Classification of Confirmations
Certified services pertaining to Article 20, paragraph (1), item (i) of the Act	A person must be a graduate of a university or college of technology under the School Education Act (Act No. 26 of 1947) after completing the prescribed courses of engineering department, in regard to the approved service listed in the left column, must have at least 6 years' experience for university graduates (excluding junior college graduates, hereinafter the same applies in this table) or at least 8 years' experience for a person other than university graduates and must have professional knowledge of necessary areas for providing the service such as structure, electric and others.	Confirmation referred to in Article 13, paragraph (4) of the Act or Article 13-2, paragraph (2) of the Act, or confirmation of inspections referred to in item (i) in the table of Article 39-4, paragraph (1).
Certified services pertaining to Article 20, paragraph (1), item (ii) of the Act	A person must be a graduate of a university or college of technology under the School Education Act after completing the prescribed courses of aeronautical engineering or mechanical engineering and, in regard to the approved services listed in the above column, must have at least 3 years' experience for university graduates or at least 5 years' experience for a person other than university graduates.	Confirmation referred to in Article 10, paragraph (6), item (i) of the Act or Article 17, paragraph (3), item (ii) of the Act
Certified services pertaining to Article 20, paragraph (1), item (iii) of the Act	A person who must have a certificate of competency for qualification of first class aircraft maintenance technician, second class aircraft maintenance technician or aircraft overhaul technician corresponding to the certified service listed in the left column and must have at least 3 years' experience for the approved service.	Confirmation referred to in Article 10, paragraph (6), item (iii) of the Act
Certified services pertaining to Article 20, paragraph (1), item (iv) of the Act	A person who must have a certificate of competency for qualification of first class aircraft maintenance technician, second class aircraft maintenance technician first class aircraft line maintenance technician, second class aircraft line maintenance technician or aircraft overhaul technician corresponding to the approved services listed in the left column and must have at least 3 years' experience for the approved services; provided, however, that for an aircraft which has been altered, it is sufficient for a person who must have competence certification for qualification of first class aircraft maintenance technician or second class aircraft maintenance technician, completed educations and trainings regarding alteration of the type of aircraft pertaining to the alteration and must have at least 3 years' experience for alternation of the type of aircraft pertaining to the alteration.	Confirmation referred to in Article 19, paragraph (1) of the Act or Article 19-2 of the Act
Certified services pertaining to Article 20, paragraph (1), item (v) of the Act	A person must be a graduate of a university or college of technology under the School Education Act after completing the prescribed courses of engineering department, in regard to the certified service listed in the left column, must have at least 6 years' experience for university graduates or at least 8 years' experience for a person other than university graduates and must have professional knowledge of necessary areas for providing the service such as structure, electricity and others.	Confirmation referred to in Article 14-2, paragraph (6) or confirmation of inspections referred to in item (ii) in the table of Article 39-4, paragraph (1).
Certified services pertaining to Article 20, paragraph (1), item (vi) of the Act	A person must be a graduate of a university or college of technology under the School Education Act after completing the prescribed courses of engineering and, in regard to the certified service listed in the left column, must have at least 3 years' experience for university graduates or at least 5 years' experience for a person other than university graduates.	Confirmation referred to in Article 17, paragraph (3), item (i) of the Act
Certified services pertaining to Article 20, paragraph (1), item (vii)of the Act	A person must satisfy the requirements listed in 1 or 2 below:	Confirmation referred to in Article 17, paragraph (3), item (iii) of the Act
	1 A person who must have a certificate of competency for qualification of aircraft overhaul technician corresponding to the certified service listed in the left column and must have at least 3 years' experience for the certified service.
	2 A person must be a graduate of a university or college of technology under the School Education Act after completing the prescribed courses of engineering and, in regard to the certified service listed in the left column, must have at least 3 years' experience for university graduates or at least 5 years' experience for a person other than university graduates.

(v)implementation method of work (excluding methods pertaining to a quality control system under the following item) is appropriate for the proper implementation of the certified services. (as for the implementation method of work regarding the certified services under Article 20, paragraph (1), item (iii) of the Act, the necessary maintenance for the aircraft based on the result of inspection of structure of the aircraft and conditions of its components and system is to be carried out, which is appropriate for the proper implementation of the certified services);

(vi)quality control system including the following systems is appropriate for the proper implementation of the certified services;

(a)a system relating to the maintenance of facilities referred to in item (i)

(b)a system relating to education and training of personnel referred to in item (iii)

(c)a system relating to revision of work implementation method referred to in the preceding item

(d)a system relating to procurement, administration and operation of technical data

(e)a system relating administration of materials, parts and components

(f)a system relating to receiving inspection of materials, parts and components, etc. and acceptance inspection, in-process inspection and completion inspection of aircraft and components

(g)a system relating to process control

(h)a system relating to the management of the service provided by the contracted person if it is the service is contracted out

(i)a system relating to the management of the records of the services

(j)a system relating to the audits conducted by any organization independent from the organization that provides the service

(k)a system relating to the management of design documents and other documents pertaining to design (hereinafter referred to as "design documents" in this Section) and inspection for the documents, for the certified services under Article 20, paragraph (1), item (i) or (v) of the Act

(l)a system relating to inspections in order to manage test specimen and to maintain its quality, for the certified services under Article 20, paragraph (1), item (i) or (v) of the Act

(vii)as for the certified services listed in the left column in the following table, inspections listed in the middle column in that table are conducted using the methods listed in the right column in that table.

Classification of Certified Services	Classification of Inspections	Method of Implementing Inspection
Certified services under Article 20, paragraph (1), item (i) of the Act	Post-design inspection referred to in Article 10, paragraph (5), item (iv) of the Act, Article 13, paragraph (4) of the Act, Article 13-2, paragraph (4) of the Act, Article 18, paragraph (2), item (ii) (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to Article 21), Article 23-2, paragraph (2), item (ii) (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to Article 23-5) or Article 26, paragraph (2)	Examination of design documents, ground test, flight test and other methods
Certified services under Article 20, paragraph (1), item (ii) of the Act	Post-completion inspection of an aircraft referred to in Article 10, paragraph (6), item (i) of the Act	Ground test and flight test
Certified services under Article 20, paragraph (1), item (iii) of the Act	Post-maintenance inspection of an aircraft referred to in Article 10, paragraph (6), item (iii) of the Act
Certified services under Article 20, paragraph (1), item (v) of the Act	Post-design inspection of an aircraft referred to in Article 10, paragraph (5), item (v) of the Act, Article 14-2, paragraph (6) or Article 29, paragraph (2)	Examination of design documents, functional test and other methods
Certified services under Article 20, paragraph (1), item (vi) of the Act	Post-completion inspection of an aircraft referred to in Article 17, paragraph (3), item (i) of the Act	Functional test and other methods

(Issuance of Authorization Certificate)

Article 36Authorization is given by issuing an authorization for place of business (Form No.16-2) to an applicant.

(Validity Period for Authorization)

Article 37Validity period for authorization is 2 years.

(Changes to Limitations)

Article 38(1)When an authorized person intends to make changes to particulars which are limited, the person must submit a request for changes to limitations (Form No.16-3) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism and obtain the approval.

(2)Authorization under the preceding paragraph is to be given by examining whether or not service capacity pertaining to changes conform to the technical standards set forth in Article 35.

(3)Approval under paragraph (1) is given by issuing a written approval for changes to limitations (Form No.16-4) to an applicant.

(Matters regarding providing services and application for approval of approved organization exposition)

Article 39(1)Matters regarding providing services as specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in Article 20, paragraph (2) of the Act are as follows:

(i)capacity and scope of the certified services and the limitations thereon

(ii)matters regarding facilities, workshops, storage facilities and other facilities used for the services

(iii)matters regarding organization and personnel that provide the services

(iv)matters regarding quality control system and other methods for providing the services

(v)particulars regarding certification service provided by certifying staff

(vi)other necessary matters regarding provision of the services

(2)A person who intends to apply for approval of establishment or changes to approved organization exposition pursuant to the provisions of Article 20, paragraph (2) of the Act must submit a request for approval of establishment of (changes to) approved organization exposition (Form No.16-5) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, together with documents stating the following particulars:

(i)an approved organization exposition that a person intends to establish or change (in case of changes, a comparison between the original and new approved organization exposition must be specified)

(ii)documents explaining that the operational rules under the preceding item conform to the technical standards under the following Article

(Technical Standards)

Article 39-2Technical standards as specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth under paragraph (3) of Article 20 the Act are as follows:

(i)with regard to the particulars referred to in item (i) of paragraph (1) of the preceding Article, capacity and scope of the certified services and limitations thereon are clearly defined in accordance with the provisions of Article 33.

(ii)particulars set forth in items (ii) through (iv) of paragraph (1) of the preceding Article conform to the standards listed in each item of Article 35.

(iii)particulars set forth in item (v) of paragraph (1) of the preceding Article appropriately prescribe methods to perform certification service in accordance with the provisions of Article 39-4 through Article 41.

(Operation of Certified Services)

Article 39-3A certified person must provide the certified services fairly and in accordance with the approved organization exposition specified in Article 20, paragraph (2) of the Act.

(Methods for Certification of Inspection)

Article 39-4(1)The certifying staff who provides the certified services under Article 20, paragraph (1), item (i) or (v) of the Act are to perform each inspection listed in the right column in the following table according to the categories listed in the left column in that table and then are to sign or sign and seal the document certifying that the staff have confirmed that all inspections have been conducted properly and the inspection results have been recorded if the staff has confirmed these.

Classification of Certified Services	Inspection to be Confirmed
(i) certified services under Article 20, paragraph (1), item (i) of the Act	Post-design inspection referred to in Article 10, paragraph (5), item (iv) of the Act, Article 13, paragraph (4) of the Act, Article 13-2, paragraph (4) of the Act, Article 18, paragraph (2), item (ii) (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to Article 21), Article 23-2, paragraph (2), item (ii) (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to Article 23-5) or Article 26, paragraph (2)
(ii) certified services under Article 20, paragraph (1), item (v) of the Act	Post-design inspection referred to in Article 10, paragraph (5), item (v) of the Act, Article 14-2, paragraph (6) or Article 29, paragraph (2)

(2)The certifying staff who took charge of design which is subject to inspections set forth in the preceding paragraph must not give the confirmation under the preceding paragraph.

(Method to Confirm Compliance with the Standards under Article 10, paragraph (4) of the Act)

Article 40(1)Confirmations of compliance with the standards set forth in paragraph (4) of Article 10 of the Act are to be given by certifying staff (excluding persons who took charge of design pertaining to the confirmation for item (iii) and (iv) of that table) for each particular listed in the middle column of the following table according to the categories listed in the left column of that table, and confirmations by the certifying staff are given by signing or signing and sealing the statement of conformity or the flight logbook listed in the right column of that table.

Classification of Confirmations	Particulars	Statement of Conformity or Flight Logbook
(i) confirmation referred to in Article 10, paragraph (6), item (i) of the Act	For manufacturing processes of the aircraft and current conditions after it is completed, the aircraft must conform to the standards referred to in Article 10, paragraph (4) of the Act.	Statement of aircraft conformity and aircraft flight logbook referred to in paragraph (1) of the following Article (glider flight logbook in the case of a glider)
(ii) confirmation referred to in Article 10, paragraph (6), item (iii) of the Act	For maintenance processes of the aircraft and current conditions after the post-maintenance thereof, the aircraft must conform to the standards referred to in Article 10, paragraph (4) of the Act.
(iii) confirmation referred to in Article 13, paragraph (4) of the Act	For a design change of the aircraft for which the type certificate is obtained, the aircraft after the relevant design change must conform to the standards referred to in Article 10, paragraph (4) of the Act.	Statement of design conformity referred to in paragraph (1) of the following Article
(iv) confirmation referred to in Article 13, paragraph (2), item (iv) of the Act	For a design change of the aircraft of which supplemental type certificate has been obtained, the aircraft after the relevant design change must conform to the standards referred to in Article 10, paragraph (4) of the Act.
(v) confirmation referred to in Article 17, paragraph (3), item (i) of the Act	For manufacturing processes of equipment and current conditions after the completion thereof, the equipment must conform to the standards referred to in Article 10, paragraph (4), item (iv) of the Act.	Authorized release certificate referred to in paragraph (1) of the following Article
(vi) confirmation referred to in Article 17, paragraph (3), item (ii) of the Act	For manufacturing processes of equipment (limited to equipment to be manufactured) and current conditions after the completion thereof, the relevant equipment must conform to the standards referred to in Article 10, paragraph (4), item (i) of the Act.
(vii) confirmation referred to in Article 17, paragraph (3), item (iii) of the Act	For plans and processes of repair or alteration of equipment and the current conditions after the completion of the work, the relevant equipment must conform to the standards referred to in Article 10, paragraph (4), item (i) of the Act.
(viii) confirmation referred to in Article 19, paragraph (1) of the Act or Article 19-2 of the Act	For plans and processes of maintenance or alteration of the aircraft and current conditions after the completion of the work, aircraft listed in the following items (a) through (c) must conform to the standards referred to in (a) through (c) respectively.	Aircraft flight logbook (glider flight logbook in the case of a glider)
	(a) a maintained or altered aircraft (excluding aircraft listed in (b) and (c)): standards referred to in Article 10, paragraph (4), item (i) of the Act
	(b) a repaired or altered aircraft listed in the right column (b) of item (ii) in the table of Article 24: standards referred to in Article 10, paragraph (4), items (i) and (ii) of the Act
	(c) a repaired or altered aircraft liste in the right column (c) of item (ii) in the table of Article 24: Standards referred to in Article 10, paragraph (4),items (i) and (iii) of the Act

(2)Confirmations set forth under paragraph (6) of Article 14-2 are to be given regarding design changes of components or parts of approved type or specifications referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 14, and regarding whether or not the design changes of components or parts comply with the approved type or specifications by certifying staff (excluding persons who took charge of design pertaining to the relevant confirmation ) and the certifying staff is to confirm these by signing or signing and sealing the statement of design conformity under paragraph (2) of the following Article.

(Issuance of Statement of Conformity)

Article 41(1)A certified person must issue the statement of conformity listed in the middle column of the following table to persons who are listed in the right column of that table when the person has confirmed that the standards set forth in Article 10, paragraph (4) of the Act listed in the left column of that table are met.

Classification of Confirmations	Classification of Statement of Conformity	Person who is certified
Confirmation set forth in items (i) and (ii) in the tables of paragraph (1) of the preceding Article	Statement of aircraft conformity (Form 17)	Operator of the relevant aircraft
Confirmation set forth in item (iii) in the table of paragraph (1) of the preceding Article	Statement of design conformity (Form 17-2)	Person who obtained the type certificate
Confirmation set forth in item (iv) in the table of paragraph (1) of the preceding Article		Person who obtained the supplemental type certificate
Confirmation set forth in items (v) through (vii) of the table of paragraph (1) of the preceding Article	Authorized release certificate (Form 18)	User of the relevant equipment

(2)A certified person must issue a statement of design conformity to a person who has obtained the type or specification approval referred to in Article 14, paragraph (1) prescribed in paragraph (2) of the preceding Article when the certified person has confirmed that the aircraft falls under these categories.

(Training)

Article 41-2Upon receiving a notice stating that a training will be provided for the necessary matters regarding the enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act and other certified services from the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, a certified person who must designate an appropriate person from among personnel under Article 35, item (iii) to have the person participate in the training.

Chapter IV Airmen

(Application for Certificate for Competency)

Article 42(1)A person who intends to apply for certificate of competency referred to in Article 22 of the Act (excluding those apply pursuant to the provisions of Article 57; referred to as an "applicant for a certificate of competency" in paragraph (3)) must submit a written application for certificate of competency (Format 19 (in the case of a person who intends to be exempted from written tests pertaining to all subjects (hereinafter referred to as an "applicant exempted from all written tests") Format 19-2)) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(2)The written application referred to in the preceding paragraph must be accompanied by one copy of photograph (that of the applicant which was taken within six months prior to the application date, without a hat, showing their upper body, and not pasted to an application form (3 cm in height and 2.5 cm in width), with the applicant's name on the backside, the same applies hereafter), as well as the documents prescribed in item (i) or item (ii), or the documents prescribed in item (iii) must be presented and a photocopy thereof must be attached.

(i)in the case of a person who intends to be exempted from written tests in whole or in part pursuant to the provisions of Article 48 or 48-2, a photocopy of the document referred to in Article 47

(ii)in the case of a person who intends to be exempted from paper examinations in whole or in part pursuant to the provisions of Article 49, a photocopy of the certificate of competency

(iii)in the case of a person who holds a license certificate pertaining to the skills required for air navigation services granted by a foreign government which is a contracting state of the Convention on International Civil Aviation and intends to be exempted from examinations, the relevant license certificate

(3)When an applicant for certificate of competency (excluding the applicant for exemption from all written tests) who has passed the written test must submit an application for practical test (Format 19-2) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, together with one copy of photograph and a photocopy of the document referred to in Article 47 (limited to those pertaining to the written test that the applicant has passed), and a the documents specified in item (i) as necessary, or the documents prescribed in item (ii) must be presented together with a photocopy thereof.

(i)in the case of a person who intends to be exempted from practical tests in whole or in part pursuant to the provisions of Article 49, a photocopy of the certificate of competency

(ii)in the case of a person who holds a license certificate pertaining to the skills required for air navigation services granted by a foreign government which is a contracting state of the Convention on International Civil Aviation and intends to be exempted from practical tests, the relevant license certificate

(4)An applicant for certificate of competency pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) must submit the abstract of their family register or a certificate of family register description or a copy of the resident record which states their registered domicile (or in the case of a foreigner, a certificate from a consular officer of their country which certifies their nationality, name, date of birth and gender (in the case of a person who is unable to submit a certificate from a consular official of their country, a document which certifies those particular issued by a competent authority);the same applies hereinafter) and a document which proves their aeronautical career and other career listed in Appended Table 2 to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism within two years from the date of notice referred to in Article 47 regarding their passing of a written test pertaining to the application (or in the case of an applicant for exemption from all written tests, the date on which an application for certificate of competency is submitted).

(5)A person applying for certificate of competency pertaining to qualifications for aeronautical radio operators pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) must submit a photocopy of their radio operator license to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism within two years from the date on which an application for certificate of competency was submitted.

(Requirements for Certificate of Competency)

Article 43(1)A certificate of competency or an instrument rating referred to in Article 34, paragraph (1) of the Act or flight instructor's certificate referred to in Article 34, paragraph (2) cannot be issued to a person under 17 years of age in the case of qualifications for a private pilot, second class flight navigator or aeronautical radio operator (certificates pertaining to gliders among the certificates for private pilots, 16 years of age), a person under 18 years of age in the case of a commercial pilot, first class flight navigator, flight engineer, first class aircraft line maintenance technician, second class aircraft line maintenance technician and aircraft overhaul technician, a person under 19 years of age in the case of a second class aircraft maintenance technician, a person under 20 years of age in the case of a first class aircraft maintenance technician, and a person under 21 year of age in the case of an airline transport pilot, and maintains the aeronautical career and other career listed in Appended Table 2.

(2)The qualifications specified by Order of the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism referred to in Article 26 paragraph (2) of the Act are the qualifications for first class general radiotelephone operator, second class general radiotelephone operator or flight radiotelephone operator.

(Proof of Aeronautical Career)

Article 44The aeronautical career and other career referred to in Article 42, paragraph (4) and paragraph (1) of the preceding Article must be certified through the methods specified below; provided, however, that this does not apply to the career built up prior to the enforcement of the Act.

(i)in the case of a holder of a certificate of competency, their aeronautical career pertaining to the qualifications must be certified by the relevant captain when each flight ends.

(ii)as for the aeronautical career pertaining to flying for the flight training specified in each item of Article 35, paragraph (1) of the Act must are be certified each time by the supervisor.

(iii)as for beyond what is set forth in the preceding two items, their achievement must be certified each time by the user, instructor or a person equivalent thereto.

(Public Notice and Notification of Examination Dates)

Article 45(1)When the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism conducts examinations pursuant to the provisions of Article 29, paragraph (1) of the Act (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of Article 29-2 of the Act, paragraph (2), Article 33, paragraph (3) of the Act, and Article 34, paragraph (3)of the Act), the minister publicly notifies in the official gazette the date and location of examinations, qualifications for the certificate of competency for which the examinations will be conducted, the time to submit an application for certificate of competency referred to in Article 42, paragraph (1), a request for change of competency rating referred to in Article 57, paragraph (1), application for aviation English proficiency certificate referred to in Article 63, paragraph (1), or an instrument rating or flight instructor's certificate referred to in Article 64, paragraph (1), and any other necessary matters.

(2)After receiving an application for certificate of competency referred to in Article 42, paragraph (1), request for change of competency rating referred to in Article 57, paragraph (1), application for aviation English proficiency certificate referred to in Article 63, paragraph (1), or application for instrument rating or flight instructor's certificate referred to in Article 64, paragraph (1), the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism notifies the applicant or requestor the details of examinations and other required matters referred to in Article 29, paragraph (1) of the Act (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of Article 29-2, paragraph (2) of the Act, Article 33, paragraph (3) of the Act, and Article 34, paragraph (3) of the Act).

(Examination Subjects)

Article 46The examinations referred to in Article 29, paragraph (1) of the Act (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to Article 29-2 paragraph (2) of the Act, Article 33, paragraph (3) of the Act, and Article 34, paragraph (3) of the Act) are conducted for the subjects listed in Appended Table 3; provided, however, that among the practical examination subjects, some of the subjects that are considered unnecessary by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism due to the strength, structure or performance of the aircraft used for the practical examination will not be conducted.

Article 46-2The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism may conduct all or part of the practical examinations using a flight simulator or an operational flight trainer, when conducting a practical test for the subjects listed in Appended Table 3.

(Notice of Passing Written Examination)

Article 47The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism notifies in writing the person who has passed the written examinations or the person who has achieved a passing score for some of the subjects of the written examinations.

(Exemption from Examinations)

Article 48When a person who has passed the written examinations applies for a certificate of competency for the same qualification as the one pertaining to the examination that the person has passed and for the same category of aircraft (in the case of aircraft overhaul technician qualification, services in the same category), or if a person applies for aviation English proficiency certificate referred to in Article 33, paragraph (1) or for instrument rating or flight instructor's certificate, the person will, upon application, be exempted from written examinations to be conducted within two years from the date on which the notice pertaining to the passing examination referred to in the preceding Article was issued.

Article 48-2When a person who sat written examinations of all subjects and achieved passing scores in some of the subjects applies for a certificate of competency for the same qualification as the one pertaining to the written examinations, the person will be exempted from the written examinations pertaining to the subjects in which the person achieved passing scores, upon application, only for the written examinations to be conducted within one year from the date on which a notice referred to in Article 47 pertaining to the relevant written examinations was issued, in the written examinations pertaining to all of the relevant subjects and following the written examinations pertaining to all of the relevant subjects until the written examinations pertaining to the relevant application.

Article 48-3If a person who holds an aviation English proficiency certificate applies for an aviation English proficiency certificate another time, the person will be exempted from written examinations pertaining to the application, upon application, only when the person sits the practical examination pertaining to the application prior to the validity period of their current aviation English proficiency certificate.

Article 49In relation to the examinations for a person who applies for a certificate of competency for qualifications other than the one that the person currently holds, or for changes of competency rating, or for instrument rating or for flight instructor's certificate, if the subjects are the same as the examination subjects pertaining to the current certificate of competency, instrument rating or flight instructor's certification may be omitted if the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism deems the examinations to be equivalent or higher level.

Article 50(1)In the case of a person who holds a license certificate pertaining to the skills required for air navigation services granted by a foreign government which is a contracting state for the Convention on International Civil Aviation, the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism may, upon application, grant a certificate of competency, change of competency rating, aviation English proficiency certificate or instrument rating without conducting all or parts of the written examinations (excluding those relating to the Japan's Aviation Act listed in Appended Table 3) and practical examinations.

(2)In the case of a person who holds a licence certificate pertaining to the skills required for air navigation services granted by a foreign government which is a contracting state for the Convention on International Civil Aviation, if the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism deems that the relevant government conducts the examinations equivalent to or higher than those under the provisions of Article 46, the minister may, upon application, grant a certificate of competency, change of competency rating, aviation English proficiency certificate or instrument rating without conducting any examination.

(3)In the cases referred to in the two preceding paragraphs (excluding the case in which an aviation English proficiency certificate is to be granted), the person must pass the examinations that the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism deems necessary to determine as to whether the person possesses Japanese or English language skills required for an airman.

Article 50-2(1)In the case of a person who has completed the course at the Independent Administrative Institution Civil Aviation College, upon application, the written examinations for certificate of competency for qualifications of flight radiotelephone operator or for aviation English proficiency certificate or the practical examinations for certificate of competency for qualifications of a commercial pilot or private pilot or for change of competency rating or instrument rating will not be conducted; provided, however, that this does not apply if one year has passed from the completion date of the course at the Civil Aviation College.

(2)If an application is filed pursuant to the provisions of the preceding paragraph, a document certifying the completion of the course at the Independent Administrative Institution Civil Aviation College must be attached.

(3)In the case of the examinations for a person who has completed the course at an airman training school designated by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism pursuant to the provisions of Article 29, paragraph (4) of the Act (hereafter called "designated airman training school"), as specified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism in the public notice, upon application, all or part of the practical tests will not be conducted; provided, however, that this does not apply if one year has passed from the completion date of the course at the relevant designated airman training school (in the case of a course pertaining to the subjects of basic maintenance technique referred to in item (ii), paragraph (3) of the following Article, if two years have passed).

(4)In the case of a person who has completed the course of designated airman training school pertaining to certificate of competency pertaining to qualifications of flight radiotelephone operator or for aviation English proficiency certificate, upon application, written examinations pertaining to the relevant certificate of competency or aviation English proficiency certificate will not be conducted; provided, however, that this does not apply if one year has passed from the completion date of the course of the relevant airman training school.

(5)When filing an application pursuant to the provisions of the preceding two paragraphs, a course completion certificate (Format 19-3) issued by the administrator of the designated airman training school must be attached.

(6)In the case of a person who is assessed to have the knowledge and ability of aviation English by a Japanese air carrier designated by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism pursuant to the provisions of Article 29, paragraph (4) of the Act, as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of Article 33, paragraph (3) of the Act following the deemed replacement of terms (hereafter called "designated air carrier assessing aviation English language proficiency"), upon application, the examinations pertaining to aviation English language proficiency certification will not be conducted; provided, however, that this does not apply if one year has passed from the date of assessment.

(7)When filing an application pursuant to the provisions of the preceding paragraph, a certificate of English language proficiency test (Format 19-3-2) issued by the administrator of the designated air carrier assessing aviation English language proficiency.

(Application for Designation of Airman Training School)

Article 50-3(1)A person who intends to be designated as an airman training school under the provisions of Article 29, paragraph (4) of the Act must submit a written application for designation of airman training school (Format 19-4) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(2)The written application referred to in the preceding paragraph must be accompanied by two copies of the regulations for training and a document including the training records.

(3)The regulations for training referred to in the preceding paragraph include the following particulars.

(i)name and resume of the administrator of the relevant training school

(ii)Ratings referred to in Article 25 paragraph (1), (2) and (3) of the Act, rating pertaining to the change referred to in Article 29-2 paragraph (1) of the Act, aviation English proficiency certificate referred to in Article 33 paragraph (1) of the Act, instrument rating referred to in Article 34 paragraph (1) of the Act, or a course specified separately for each subject of basic maintenance technique pertaining to a certificate of competency for qualifications of first class aircraft maintenance technician, second class aircraft maintenance technician, first class aircraft line maintenance technician, second class aircraft line maintenance technician, and aircraft overhaul technician referred to in Appended Table 3

(iii)name, resume and qualifications of a theory instructors as a airman

(iv)name, resume and qualifications of a flight instructors as a airman

(v)name, resume and qualifications of competency assessor as a airman (meaning a person who is engaged in assessment of practical or theory competency pertaining to the course at the relevant school; the same applies hereinafter)

(vi)outline of the training facility

(vii)contents and methods of training

(viii)method for competency assessment

(ix)other matters that are sufficient to prove compliance with standards set forth in items of the following Article

(Standards for Designation of Airmen Training School)

Article 50-4The designation of airmen training school referred to in Article 29, paragraph (4) of the Act are implemented when the following standards are met.

(i)it is a training school established by an establisher who satisfies the following requirements.

(a)The person is not a person who has, in the last two years, engaged in unlawful conduct in relation to an issuance of completion certificate at a designated airmen training school or examinations referred to in Article 29, paragraph (1) of the Act (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of Article 29-2, paragraph (2), Article 33, paragraph (3), and Article 34, paragraph (3)), or a person who has violated the Act and was sentenced to a fine or severer punishment and two years have not elapsed since the day on which the execution of the sentence was completed or ceased to be executed (hereafter referred to as a "disqualified person" in this Article).

(b)the person is deemed to be capable of properly and reliably operate the training school.

(c)the person has achieved significant performance in airmen training.

(d)if the establisher is a judicial person, the officer (regardless of title, a person whose authority or controlling power is equivalent thereof or higher) of the relevant judicial person is not a disqualified person.

(ii)an administrator who satisfies the following requirements are assigned.

(a)a person is 25 years of age or over.

(b)a person is not a disqualified person.

(c)the person is deemed to be capable of properly managing the operations of the relevant school.

(d)the person has the knowledge and experience required for airmen training.

(iii)more than the required number of theory instructors who satisfy the following requirements are assigned.

(a)a person is 21 years of age or over.

(b)the person holds a certificate of competency, aviation English language proficiency certificate or instrument rating corresponding to the course at the relevant training school, or the person has sufficient knowledge and ability in the subject pertaining to the course at the relevant training school and has sufficient practical experience in the relevant subject.

(c)the person has sufficient knowledge and ability to teach the theory pertaining to the course at the relevant training school and has received the necessary training as an instructor.

(iv)more than the required number of practical instructors who satisfy the following requirements are assigned.

(a)a person is 21 years of age or over.

(b)the person holds a certificate of competency, aviation English language proficiency certificate, instrument rating or flight instructor's certificate (including the certificate pertaining to the skills required for air navigation services granted by a foreign government which is a contracting state of Convention on International Civil Aviation comparable to this) required for practical training pertaining to the course at the relevant training school, or a person who has work experience, knowledge and ability comparable to or higher than those of the former.

(c)the person has sufficient knowledge and ability to provide the practical training pertaining to the course at the relevant training school and has received the necessary training for an instructor.

(v)more than the required number of competency assessors who have been certified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism as those who satisfy the following requirements.

(a)the person is 25 years of age or over.

(b)the person is not a disqualified person.

(c)when conducting a competency assessment pertaining to the course pertaining to a certificate of competency or instrument rating, among the courses at the relevant training school, a person who holds the certificate of competency or instrument rating that is required for the competency assessment.

(d)the person has the ability to carry out a competency assessment pertaining to the course at the relevant training school.

(vi)it has a training facility that satisfies the following requirements.

(a)buildings and other facilities required to teach the subjects

(b)an aircraft and other equipment and facilities required to provide practical training

(vii)the subjects of the theory training and practical training pertaining to the course at the relevant training school and number of training hours for each subject are appropriate.

(viii)following systems for proper operation of the relevant training facility are established.

(a)a system relating to the management of theory instructors and practical instructors

(b)a system relating to the competency assessment results

(c)a system relating to the maintenance and management of training facilities

(d)a system relating to the management of training and performance records

(e)a system relating to the audits of the relevant training facilities

(Operation of Services Provided by Designated Airmen Training School)

Article 50-5The administrator of a designated airmen training school must provide their services fairly and in accordance with the regulations for training set forth in Article 50-3, paragraph (2) so as to comply with the standards set forth in items of the preceding Article

(Designation of Airmen Training School)

Article 50-6(1)Designation of airman training school pursuant to the provisions of Article 29 paragraph (4) of the Act is to be implemented for each facility.

(2)The designation referred to in the preceding paragraph is to specify the limitations on courses.

(Issuance of Certificate of Designation of Airman Training School)

Article 50-7Designation of an airmen training school is implemented by issuing a certificate of designation of airmen training school (Format 19-5).

(Certification of Competency Assessor)

Article 50-8(1)A certification procedure for competency assessor prescribed in Article 50 paragraph (4) item (v) is performed per course.

(2)A deadline may be set for the certification procedure referred to in the preceding paragraph.

(Changes to Limitations on the Course at Designated Airmen Training School)

Article 50-9(1)If a designated person intends to change the limitations imposed on a course at the relevant designated airmen training school, the designated person must submit a request for change of limitations (Format 19-6) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism accompanied by two copies of the regulations for training to be changed and a document including the training records and obtain an approval from the minister.

(2)The approval referred to in the preceding paragraph is to be granted after examining whether or not the particulars pertaining to the changes comply with the standards set forth in Article 50-4.

(3)The approval referred to in paragraph (1) is granted by issuing a certificate of change of limitations (Format 19-7) to the applicant.

(Limitations on Issuance of Completion Certificate)

Article 50-10The administrator of a designated airmen training school must not issue a completion certificate under the provisions of Article 50-2, paragraph (5) to anyone other than a person who has completed the course at the relevant designated airmen training school and has passed the competency assessment conducted by a competency assessor referred to in Article 50-4, item (v) for the subjects of examinations from which the person is exempted pursuant to the provisions of the provisions of paragraphs (3) and (4) of that Article.

(Revocation of Certificate of Competency Assessor)

Article 50-11The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism may revoke the certificate of a competency assessor certified pursuant to the provisions of Article 50-4, item (v), if the minister finds that the competency assessor engaged in wrongful conduct in performing a competency assessment or that the standards referred to in that item are not met.

(Designation of Aircraft)

Article 51The aircraft specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism referred to in Article 28, paragraph (3) of the Act are as follows.

(i)primary gliders and secondary gliders

(ii)The aircraft which flies between the places outside Japan which is navigated (including handling of airframe and engines of the aircraft on board) by a person on board who is specified in a public notice by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism as a person who has sufficient knowledge and ability required to engage in air navigation services on the relevant aircraft

Article 51-2A person who intends to obtain an approval referred to in Article 28, paragraph (3) of the Act must submit a written application including the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name and address

(ii)category, class and type of the aircraft and the country code and registration number of the aircraft

(iii)outline of the flight plan (purpose, date and time, and route of the flight must be specified).

(iv)name and qualifications of the pilot

(v)name and purpose of the fellow passengers

(vi)other particulars used as reference

(Format of Certificate of Competency)

Article 52The form of a certificate of competency referred to in Article 23 of the Act is the same as Form 20.

(Rating on Competence Certificate)

Article 53(1)A rating pertaining to aircraft categories referred to in Article 25, paragraph (1) of the Act and a rating pertaining to aircraft classes referred to in paragraph (2) of that Article are granted based on the aircraft used for the practical examination.In this case, the class of aircraft is the class of aircraft listed in the lower column of that table corresponding to the category of aircraft listed in the upper column of the following table.

Categories of Aircraft	Classes of Aircraft
Airplane	Single- Engine Piston (Land)
	Single- Engine Turbine (Land)
	Multi-Engine Piston (Land)
	Multi-Engine Turbine (Land)
	Single-Engine Piston (Sea)
	Single-Engine Turbine (Sea)
	Multi-Engine Piston (Sea)
	Multi-Engine Turbine (Sea)
Rotorcraft	Same as the classes of airplanes
Glider	Motor Glider without Tow Hook
	Motor Glider with Tow Hook
	Soaring Glider
	Secondary Glider
Airship	Same as the classes of airplanes

(2)In the case referred to in the preceding paragraph, if the class of aircraft used in the practical examination is the class listed in the upper column of the following table, with regard to a certificate of competency for an airline transport pilot, commercial pilot and private pilot and flight engineer (only when the category of the class of aircraft for the rating is limited to airplane or airship), the class of aircraft which is rated is the class listed in the lower column of the following table.

Classes of Aircraft used in the Practical Test	Class Rating for Aircraft
Single-engine Piston (Land) or Single-engine Turbine (Land)	Single-engine Piston (Land) and Single-engine Turbine (Land)
Multi-engine Piston (Land) or Multi-engine Turbine (Land)	Multi-engine Piston (Land) and Multi-engine Turbine (Land)
Single-engine Piston (Sea) or Single-engine Turbine (Sea)	Single-engine Piston (Sea) and Single-engine Turbine (Sea)
Multi-engine Piston (Sea) or Multi-engine Turbine (Sea)	Multi-engine Piston (Sea) and Multi-engine Turbine (Sea)

(3)In the case referred to in paragraph (1), with regard to a certificate of competency for first class aircraft maintenance technician, second class aircraft maintenance technician, first class aircraft line maintenance technician and second class aircraft line maintenance technician qualification, if the class of aircraft that is used in the practical examination is the class listed in the upper column of the following table, the class of aircraft which is rated is the class of aircraft listed in the lower column of that table.

Classes of Aircraft used in the Practical Test	Class Rating for Aircraft
Single-engine Piston (Land), Multi-engine Piston (Land), Single-engine Piston (Sea) or Multi-engine Piston (Sea)	Single-engine Piston (Land), Multi-engine Piston (Land), Single-engine Piston (Sea) and Multi-engine Piston (Sea)
Single-engine Turbine (Land), Multi-engine Turbine (Land), Single-engine Turbine (Sea) or Multi-engine Turbine (Sea)	Single-engine Turbine (Land), Multi-engine Turbine (Land), Single-engine Turbine (Sea) and Multi-engine Turbine (Sea)
Motor Glider without Tow Hook or Motor Glider with Tow Hook	Motor Glider without Tow Hook, Motor Glider with Tow Hook, Soaring Glider, Secondary Glider
Soaring Glider	Soaring Glider and Secondary Glider

Article 54A rating pertaining to aircraft types referred to in Article 25, paragraph (2) of the Act is granted in accordance with the following classes based on the aircraft used in the practical examination.

(i)in the case of qualifications for a pilot, for an aircraft which requires two pilots due to its structure or the aircraft type specified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, the relevant aircraft type

(ii)in the case of qualifications for a flight engineer, the relevant aircraft type

(iii)in the case of qualifications for a first class aircraft maintenance technician and first class aircraft line maintenance technician qualification, the following aircraft types

(a)for the aircraft specified in Article 56-2, the relevant aircraft type

(b)for the aircraft type specified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, the relevant aircraft type

(iv)in the case of a second class aircraft maintenance technician and second class aircraft line maintenance technician, if the aircraft type is specified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, the relevant aircraft type

Article 55A rating in relation to the types of operations referred to in Article 25, paragraph (3) of the Act granted separately for airframe structures, components of an aircraft, piston engine, turbine engine, propellers, instruments, electronic equipment, electrical equipment, or radio communication equipment, based on the type of operation pertaining to the examinations.

Article 56If a person who holds a pilot license obtains a certificate of competency that is superior to their current license (based on the order under the provisions of Article 24 of the Act) for the same category (in the case of a glider, the class) of aircraft, the ratings pertaining to their previous license is valid for the newly acquired license.

(Aircraft Having their Uses for which Second Class Aircraft Maintenance Technician and Second Class Aircraft Line Maintenance Technician is Unable to Carry out Post-Maintenance Checks)

Article 56-2The aircraft having their uses specified in Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism referred to in the paragraphs pertaining to second class aircraft maintenance technician and second class aircraft line maintenance technician in the Appended Table are the aircraft that falls under the airworthiness categories prescribed in Annex 1 are airplane transport C, airplane transport T, rotorcraft transport class TA and rotorcraft transport class TB.

Article 56-3A minor repair specified in Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism referred to in the paragraphs pertaining to first class line aircraft maintenance technician and second class aircraft line maintenance technician in Appended Table is a minor repair that falls under the repair category listed in the table referred to in Article 5-6.

(Change of Rating of Certificate of Competency)

Article 57(1)A person who intends to file a request for change of the rating of certificate of competency under the provisions of Article 29-2, paragraph (1) of the Act must submit a request for change of competency rating (Format 19 (Format 19-2 in the case of an applicant for exemption from all theory examination subjects)) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(2)The provisions of Article 42 paragraphs (2) through (4) apply mutatis mutandis to the application referred to in the preceding paragraph.In this case, the term "one copy" in paragraph (2) of the Article is deemed to be replaced with "one copy (except for the applicant for exemption from all theory examination subjects)", the term "one copy of photograph and a photocopy of the document referred to in Article 47" is deemed to be replaced with a "photocopy of the document referred to in Article 47", the term an "applicant for certificate of competency" in paragraph (4) of the Article is deemed to be replaced with an "requestor for change of competency rating (limited to a person who files a request for change of competency rating if the required aeronautical career or other career is not the same as the aeronautical career or other career required for the grant of their current certificate of competency)", and the term the " abstract of their family register or a certificate of entry in the family register or a copy of the resident record which states their permanent domicile (or in the case of a foreigner, a certificate from a consul officer of their country which certifies their nationality, name, date of birth and gender (in the case of a person who is unable to submit a certificate issued by a consul officer from their country, a document which certifies those particulars issued by a competent authority); the same applies hereafter) and aeronautical career and other career listed in Appended Table 2" is deemed to be replaced with "aeronautical career and other career listed in Appended Table 2".

(Notice of Revocation of Certificate of Competency)

Article 58The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, when imposing a disposition pursuant under the provisions of Article 30 of the Act (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of Article 35 paragraph (5) of the Act), notifies the the airman or student pilot (a person who has obtained a license referred to in Article 35 paragraph (1) item (i) of the Act; the same applies hereinafter) who is subject to the disposition of the disposition and the reason.

(Suspension of Air Navigation Services)

Article 59An airman or student pilot who has received the notice referred to in the preceding Article regarding suspension of air navigation services or flight training must promptly submit the certificate of competency or student pilot permit to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(Special Provisions for the Method of Hearing)

Article 60(1)When conducting a hearing, the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism must issue a notice referred to in the provisions of Article 15, paragraph (1) of the Administrative Procedure Act (Act No. 88 of 1993) by 10 days prior to the date of the hearing.

(2)A person who receives a notice under the provisions of Article 15 paragraph (1) of Administrative Procedure Act from the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism (including the person who is is deemed to have received the notice pursuant to the provisions of the second sentence of paragraph (3) of the Article; hereinafter referred to as the "party" ) must, if an assistant in court is appointed, submit a document stating the address, name and the contents of the testimony of the assistant in court to the president by the day before hearing.

(3)The party must, if there is a person testifying for themselves (excluding a person participating in the proceedings in relation to the hearing under the provisions of Article 17, paragraph (1) of the Act, hereinafter referred to as a "witness"), submit a document stating the person's address, name and the contents of the testimony to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism by the day before the hearing date.

(4)If a witness intends to speak or to submit evidence, a permission from the president must be obtained.

(5)The proceedings on the date of the hearing referred to in the previous two paragraphs must be open to the public; provided, however, that this does not apply if the party requests that the proceedings will be conducted in camera.

(Application for Airman Medical Certificate)

Article 61(1)A person who intends to apply for an airman medical certificate referred to in Article 31, paragraph (1) of the Act must submit an application for airman medical certificate to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism or a designated aviation medical examiner (which shows the results of the examinations undertaken within one month prior to application at a medical institution etc designated by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism (hereinafter referred to as a "designated aviation medical examination institution", Form 22)).

(2)The written application referred to in the preceding paragraph must be accompanied by the records of the examination results pertaining to the previous airman medical certificate (hereinafter referred to as a "medical examination"), except for when applying for airman medical certificate for the first time.

(Medical Standards and Airman Medical Certificate)

Article 61-2(1)The medical standards prescribed in Order the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism referred to in Article 31, paragraph (3) of the Act and the airman medical certificate referred to in paragraph (2) of the Article are as prescribed in the following table.

Qualifications	Medical standards	Airman medical certificate
Airline transport pilot	Class 1	airman medical certificate (class 1)
Commercial pilot
First class navigator
Flight engineer
Private pilot	Class 2	airman medical certificate (class 2)
Second class navigator
Flight radiotelephone operator

(2)The contents of the medical standards listed in the table referred to in the preceding paragraph are as listed in Appended Table 4, and the form of airman medical certificate is the same as Form 24.

(3)When a person does not conform to some of the provisions prescribed in Appended Table 4, if the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism finds that the person does not have any difficulty in operating the aircraft on board, taking into consideration their experience and ability, the person is deemed to conform to the medical standards notwithstanding the provisions of the Table. In this case, when the person applies for a new airman medical certificate, the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism may, if the minister finds it necessary, instruct the person to undergo examinations, etc. of their symptoms of injury or illness which c did not meet some of the requirement provisions of the Table (hereinafter referred to as "symptoms" in this Article).

(4)A person who was deemed to have met the medical standards pursuant to the provisions of the preceding paragraph is, in the following cases, deemed to have met some of the provisions of Appended Table 4 that the person does not conform to, when applying for a new airman medical certificate.

(i)a person is diagnosed with chronic symptoms when the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism certifies the person pursuant to the provisions of the preceding paragraph.

(ii)when the person's condition is deemed to be stable as the results of examinations, etc. based on the instruction from the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism under the provisions of the preceding paragraph.

(5)When the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism finds it necessary for ensuring safe navigation of aircraft, the minister may add requirements to airman medical certificates that are required when providing air navigation services, and may also change such conditions.

(6)A holder of a class 1 airman medical certificate is deemed to be a holder of a class 2 airman medical certificate.

(Start Date of Validity Period of Airman Medical Certificate)

Article 61-3The validity period of airman medical certificate starts on the date of issue of the airman medical certificate pertaining to the airman medical certification; provided, however, that if a new airman medical certificate is issued during the period 45 days prior to the expiry date of the validity period of airman medical certificate to the expiry date of the validity period, it start on the day after the expiry date of the validity period.

(Application for Airman Medical Certificate to be Returned)

Article 61-4(1)The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism or the designated aviation medical examiner is to return the application for aviation medical certificate that states the specified particulars to the applicant for airman medical certificate that states the specified particulars.

(2)After conducting a medical examination, a designated aviation medical examiner must submit a photocopy of the application for aviation medical certificate that states the specified particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism within 10 days.

(3)If a designated aviation medical examiner deems that an applicant attempted to obtain an airman medical certificate by deception or other wrongful means, the medical examiner must promptly report this to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(Designated Aviation Medical Examiners)

Article 61-5(1)A person who intends to be designated as prescribed in Article 31, paragraph (1) of the Act must submit an application for designated aviation medical examiner to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism (Format 23), attaching the following documents.

(i)curriculum vitae

(ii)a photocopy of their medical license

(iii)a documentary certifying that the person is a member of the designated aviation medical examination institution

(2)The requirements specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism referred to in Article 31, paragraph (1) of the Act are as follows.

(i)a person must be a medical practitioner who is a member of a designated aviation medical examination institution.

(ii)a person must have attended a training session on aviation medical certification provided by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, or must have the knowledge of aviation medical certification that is deemed to be equivalent to or higher than that of the person who have attended the training session.

(iii)a person must have five years or more of experience in clinical or aviation medicine.

(iv)a person is not be a person whose designation referred to in Article 31, paragraph (1) of the Act was revoked pursuant to the provisions of Article 62 paragraph (2), and two years have not elapsed from the date of revocation.

(3)Designation referred to in Article 31, paragraph (1) of the Act is implemented by issuing a certificate of designated aviation medical examiner (Format 23-2).In this case, the designation expiration date may be specified.

(4)The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism is to issue a public notice of designation when the minister implements a designation referred to in the preceding paragraph.

Article 62(1)The designation referred to in Article 31, paragraph (1) of the Act ceases to be effective if the designated aviation medical examiner falls under any of the following items.

(i)when the expiration date set for the designation expires pursuant to the provisions of the paragraph (3) of the preceding Article.

(ii)when a person is no longer a member of the designated aviation medical examination institution.

(iii)when the designated aviation medical examination institution of which a person is a member ceases to be a designated aviation medical examination institution.

(iv)when the medical license is revoked pursuant to the provisions of Article 7, paragraph (2) of the Medical Practitioner Act (Act No. 201 of 1948).

(2)The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism may revoke the designation referred to in Article 31, paragraph (1) of the Act if the designated aviation medical examiner falls under any of the following items.

(i)if a person violates the Act or an order under the Act.

(ii)when a person is suspended from medical services pursuant to the provisions of Article 7, paragraph (2) of the Medical Practitioner Act.

(iii)if a person engages in delinquency or acts of gross negligence in the course of their duties as a designated aviation medical examiner.

(3)When the designation expires pursuant to the provisions of the paragraph (1) or if the designation is revoked pursuant to the provisions of the preceding paragraph, the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism is to issue a public notice regarding this matter.

(Designated Aviation Medical Examination Institutions)

Article 62-2(1)A person who seeks designation referred to in Article 61, paragraph (1) must submit to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism an application for designated aviation medical examination institution (Format 24-2) accompanied by a document certifying that the person meets the requirements in the items of the following paragraph.

(2)Designation referred to in Article 61 (1) is implemented to medical institutions, etc that conform to the requirements set forth in each of the following items.

(i)The institution must be a hospital or a clinic that has obtained a license under Article 7 of the Medical Care Act (Act No. 205 of 1948) or a clinic that has submitted a notice under Article 8 of the Act or a medical institution, etc., outside of Japan that has been designated as an institution that conducts aviation medical examinations by a contracting state of the Convention in International Civil Aviation.

(ii)more than the required number of medical practitioners that conduct medical examinations in each examination section are ssigned.

(iii)an institution has the necessary equipment and devices to carry out medical examinations.

(iv)when part of medical examinations is conducted by another medical institution, etc., the relevant medical institution must conform to the requirements set forth in the preceding three items in relation to the medical examinations conducted by them.

(v)a member of the institution who has sufficient knowledge of aviation medical certification and can properly manage the administration pertaining to medical examinations (hereinafter referred to as a "medical administrator") is assigned.

(vi)an institution has examination systems that enable the person to properly conduct medical examinations.

(3)Designation referred to in Article 61, paragraph (1) is implemented by issuing a certificate of designated an aviation medical examination institution (Format 24-3).In this case, the designation expiration date may be set.

(4)The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism is to issue a public notice of the designation when the minister implements designation referred to in the preceding paragraph.

(Expiration and Revocation of Designation)

Article 62-3(1)The designation referred to in Article 61, paragraph (1)ceases to be effective if the designated aviation medical examination institution falls under any of the following items.

(i)when the the designation of which expiration date was set pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (3) of the preceding Article expires.

(ii)when the establisher of the medical institution, etc., that was designated pursuant to the provisions of Article 61, paragraph (1) discontinues the medical institution, etc.

(iii)when the license to open the institution is revoked pursuant to the provisions of Article 29, paragraph (1) of the Medical Care Act.

(2)The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism may revoke the designation referred to in Article 61, paragraph (1) if the designated aviation medical examination institution falls under any of the following items.

(i)if a person violates an order under the Act.

(ii)if medical examinations are suspended for a long period of time.

(iii)if the institution is ordered to close pursuant to the provisions of Article 29, paragraph (1) of the Medical Care Act.

(iv)if the institution ceases to conforms to the requirements of paragraph (2), items (ii) through (vi) of the preceding Article.

(3)If the designation expires pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) or if the designation is revoked pursuant to the provisions of the preceding paragraph, the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism is to issue a public notice regarding this matter.

(Aviation English Language Proficiency Certificate)

Article 63(1)An applicant for aviation English language proficiency certificate (referred to as an "applicant for aviation English language proficiency certificate" in paragraph (3)) must submit an application for aviation English language proficiency certificate (Format 19 (an applicant for exemption from theory examinations uses Format 19-2)) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(2)The application referred to in the preceding paragraph must be accompanied by one copy of a photograph (except for the applicant for exemption from theory examinations), and the documents specified in item (i) or item (ii) must be attached as necessary, or the documents specified in item (iii) must be presented and a photocopy thereof must be attached.

(i)in the case of a person who intends to be exempted from theory examinations pursuant to the provisions of Article 48, a photocopy of documents prescribed in Article 47

(ii)in the case of a person who intends to be exempted from theory examinations pursuant to the provisions of Article 48, paragraph (3), a photocopy of their certificate of competency

(iii)in the case of a person who holds a certificate of competency pertaining to the skills required for air navigation services granted by a foreign government which is a contracting state of the Convention on International Civil Aviation and intends to be exempted from examinations, the relevant certificate

(3)When applying for a practical examination (including when intending to be exempted from the practical examination), an applicant for aviation English language proficiency certificate (excluding applicant for exemption from theory examinations) who has passed the theory examinations must submit an application for practical examination (Format 19-2) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, which is accompanied by the documents prescribed in item (i), and the applicant must present the document prescribed in item (ii) as necessary and a photocopy thereof must be attached to it.

(i)a photocopy of the document referred to in Article 47 (limited to those pertaining to passing theory examination)

(ii)in the case of a person who holds a certificate of competency pertaining to the skills required for air navigation services granted by a foreign government which is a contracting state of the Convention on International Civil Aviation and intends to be exempted from practical examinations, the relevant certificate

Article 63-2Aviation English language proficiency certificate is granted by stating the relevant proficiency in the person's certificate of competency.

(Categories of Aircraft which Require Aviation English Proficiency Certificate)

Article 63-3The categories of aircraft specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism referred to in Article 33 paragraph (1) of the Act include airplanes and rotorcraft.

(Air Navigation which Require Aviation English Language Proficiency Certificate)

Article 63-4The navigation specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism referred to in Article 33, paragraph (1) of the Act are prescribed as follows (except for navigation for which the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism deems that an aviation English language proficiency certificate is not required).

(i)navigation of aircraft implemented between a place within Japan and a place outside Japan

(ii)navigation of aircraft implemented between places outside Japan (limited to those flying within territories of countries other than Japan)

(iii)navigation of aircraft that leaves Japan and arrives in Japan, passing territories of a country other than Japan without landing

(Validity Period of Aviation English Language Proficiency Certificate)

Article 63-5(1)The period specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism referred to in Article 33, paragraph (2) of the Act is the period specified in the respective items, according to the levels specified in the following items.

(i)when the person is assessed to possess the knowledge and ability in aviation English language corresponding to the Language Proficiency Level 4 or 5 specified in Amendment 164 to Annex 1 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation:3 years

(ii)when the person is assessed to possess the knowledge and ability in aviation English language corresponding to the Language Proficiency Level 6 specified in Amendment 164 to Annex 1 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation:Lifetime

(2)The start date of the period specified in the items of the preceding paragraphs is the date of passing the practical examination; provided, however, that if a person passes the practical examination during the period three months prior to the expiry of the validity period of the current aviation English language proficiency certificate to the expiry date of the relevant validity period, then the period starts on the day after the expiry date of the validity period.

(3)Notwithstanding the provisions of the preceding two paragraphs, the validity period of aviation English language proficiency certificate granted without theory examination or practical examination pursuant to the provisions of Article 50, paragraph (1) or (2) is the period determined by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, which is not later than the expiration date of the validity period of the certificate of competency pertaining to the skills required for air navigation services granted by a foreign government of a contracting state of the Convention on International Civil Aviation (limited to those pertaining to aviation English language proficiency certificate).

(4)With regard to the application of provisions of paragraphs (1) and (2) if none of the practical tests is conducted pursuant to the provisions of Article 50-2, paragraph (3), the term "has passed the practical examination" in that paragraph is deemed to be replaced with "has completed the course".

(5)With regard to the application of provisions of paragraphs (1) and (2) if none of the practical tests is conducted pursuant to the provisions of Article 50-2, paragraph (6), the term "has passed the practical examination" in that paragraph is deemed to be replaced with "has been assessed to have knowledge and ability in aviation English".

(Application for Designated Air Carrier Assessing Aviation English Language Proficiency)

Article 63-6(1)A person who intends to be designated as a designated air carrier assessing aviation English language proficiency must submit an application stating the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name or company name and address

(ii)the name and address of the principal office where the services pertaining to the designation are to be provided

(iii)the number of pilots hired by the person, the number of persons who are subject to proficiency assessment (meaning the assessment as to whether the person has knowledge and ability in aviation English; the same applies hereinafter), and the number of persons holding an aviation English language proficiency certificate

(iv)other particulars used as reference

(2)The written application referred to in the preceding paragraph must be accompanied by procedure for proficiency assessment (hereinafter referred to as a "procedure for assessment").

(3)The procedure for assessment referred to in the preceding paragraph must include the following particulars.

(i)name and resume of the assessment administrator in relation to proficiency assessment

(ii)name and resume of the proficiency assessor (meaning a person who is engaged in proficiency assessment; the same applies hereinafter)

(iii)method of proficiency assessment

(iv)particulars relating to issuance of certificate of proficiency assessment

(v)particulars relating to retention of confidential information that was acquired in connection with proficiency assessment

(vi)methods of keeping and storing records concerning proficiency assessment

(vii)other particulars that are sufficient to certify compliance with the standards specified in items of the following Article.

(Criteria for Designation of Air Carrier Assessing Aviation English Language Proficiency)

Article 63-7Designation of air carrier assessing aviation English language proficiency is implemented when the carrier meets the following criteria.

(i)an administrator who satisfies the following requirements.

(a)a person 25 years of age or over.

(b)The person is not a person who has, in the last two years, engaged in wrongful conduct in relation to issuance of certificate of proficiency assessment by a designated air carrier assessing aviation English language proficiency or in relation to an examination referred to in Article 29, paragraph (1) of the Act as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to Article 33, paragraph (3), or a person who has violated the Act and was sentenced to a fine or severer punishment and two years have not elapsed from the day since the day on which the execution of the sentence was completed or ceased to be executed (hereafter referred to as a "disqualified person" in this Article).

(c)a person who is deemed to be a person capable of properly administering the operations of services in relation to proficiency assessment.

(d)a person has knowledge required for aviation English proficiency certification.

(ii)more than the required number of proficiency assessors certified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism as those who meet the following requirements are assigned.

(a)a person 25 years of age or over.

(b)a person is not a disqualified person.

(c)a person has knowledge and ability required for aviation English and proficiency assessment.

(iii)the contents and standards of proficiency assessment comply with the contents and assessment standards of the examinations referred to in Article 29, paragraph (1) of the Act as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to Article 33 paragraph (3), conducted by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(iv)a system for proper operation of services in relation to proficiency assessment by the following carrier.

(a)a system relating to the proficiency assessment results

(b)a system relating to the management of proficiency assessment records

(c)a system relating to the audits of proficiency assessment service

(Operation of Services by Designated Air Carrier Assessing Aviation English Proficiency)

Article 63-8The administrator of a designated air carrier assessing aviation English proficiency must operate the services fairly and in accordance with the criteria referred to in items of the preceding Article and according to the assessment rules prescribed in Article 63-6, paragraph (2).

(Certification of Proficiency Assessors)

Article 63-9An expiration date may be set for a certificate of proficiency assessor specified in Article 63-7, paragraph (2).

(Restrictions on Issuance of Certificate of Proficiency)

Article 63-10The administrator of a designated air carrier assessing aviation English proficiency must not issue a certificate of proficiency under the provisions of Article 50-2, paragraph (7) to anyone other than a person who has been assessed to have the knowledge and ability of aviation English by a proficiency assessor prescribed in the provisions of Article 63-7, paragraph (2).

(Revocation of Certificate of Proficiency Assessor)

Article 63-11The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism may revoke the certificate of proficiency assessor which was granted under the provisions of Article 63-7 item (ii), if the minister deems that the assessor has engaged in wrongful conduct when the proficiency assessment was conducted or that the assessor does not meet the criteria referred to in that item.

(Instrument Rating and Flight Instructor's Certificate)

Article 64(1)An applicant for instrument rating or flight instructor's certificate must submit an application for instrument rating or an application for flight instructor's certificate (Form 19 (an applicant for exemption from all theory examination subjects uses Form 19-2)) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(2)The provisions of Article 42 paragraphs (2) through (4) apply mutatis mutandis pursuant to the application referred to in the preceding paragraph.In this case, the term "one copy" in paragraph (2) of the Article is deemed to be replaced with "one copy (except for the applicant for exemption from all theory examination subjects)", the term "one copy of photograph and a photocopy of the document referred to in Article 47" in paragraph (3) of that Article is deemed to be replaced with a "copy of the document referred to in Article 47", and the term the "abstract of family register or a certificate of family register or a copy of the resident record which states their permanent domicile (or in the case of a foreigner, a certificate from a consul officer of their country which certifies their nationality, name, date of birth and gender (in the case of a person who is unable to submit a certificate issued by a consul officer from their country, a document which certifies those particulars issued by a competent authority); the same applies hereafter), and a document which certifies that the applicant possesses the aeronautical career and other career prescribed in Appended Table 2" in paragraph (4) of the Article is deemed to be replaced with "aeronautical career and other career specified in Appended Table 2".

Article 65Instrument rating or flight instructor's certificate is granted by stating the rating or certificate in the person's certificate of competency.

(Categories of Aircraft which Require a Instrument Rating to Fly under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR))

Article 65-2The categories of aircraft specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism referred to in Article 34, paragraph (1) of the Act include aircraft other than airplanes.

(Distance and Time under Instrument Flight Rules)

Article 66The distance specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism referred to in Article 34, paragraph (1) item (ii) of the Act is 110 kilometers, and the time specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism referred to in item is 30 minutes.

(Aircraft Flight Training)

Article 67(1)A person intending to obtain an approval referred to in Article 35, paragraph (1), item (i) of the Act must submit an application for student pilot certificate (which states the results of the medical examination conducted at a designated aviation medical examination institution within one month prior to the application, Format 26) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(2)The application referred to in the preceding paragraph must be accompanied by two copies of photograph and the abstract of their family register or a certificate of their family register or a copy of their resident record which states their registered domicile.

Article 68(1)The form of the student pilot certificate referred to in Article 35, paragraph (4) of the Act is the same as Form 27.

(2)The validity period of the approval referred to in the preceding paragraph is as specified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, which is one year or less.

Article 69The designation referred to in Article 35, paragraph (1), item (iii) of the Act is implemented by issuing a certificate of designated flight instructor (Form 27-2).In this case, the expiration date is to be set for the designation.

Article 69-2(1)The person specified in Article 35, paragraph (2) of the Act (hereinafter referred to as a "flight instructor") must check the particulars prescribed in the following items before the person who learns to fly a plane referred to in each item of Article 35, paragraph (1) of the Act (hereinafter referred to as a " student pilot") commences their flight training.

(i)the contents of the training plans are suitable.

(ii)the student pilot has sufficient knowledge and ability for the training.

(iii)the meteorological conditions in the airspace in which the airplane flies are suitable for the training.

(iv)the aircraft to be used has the required performance and equipment to carry out the training.

(2)the flight instructor must sit on a seat which can be switched with that of a student pilot so that the instructor can pilot an aircraft instead of the student while the student pilot on board the aircraft is piloting the aircraft.

(3)When a student pilot intends to learn to fly solo flight using a particular type of aircraft for the first time, the flight instructor must not give instructions to the student pilot who learns to fly the aircraft, unless the instructor checks the following particulars.

(i)the student pilot has sufficient experience to undergo the flight training using the relevant aircraft.

(ii)the student pilot alone can complete a takeoff and landing.

(4)The flight instructor must not permit the student pilot to undergo their first solo flight training unless the training falls under any of the following items.

(i)flight training to be provided continuously after the takeoff and landing training accompanied by the flight instructor on board.

(ii)flight training provided using a airfield traffic pattern during daytime

(5)When a student pilot intends to learn to fly solo flight to a place more than 40 kilometers away from the starting place for the first time, the flight instructor must not give instructions to the student pilot, unless the flight instructor confirms that the student pilot has the knowledge of navigation required to undergo that training.

(Instrument Flight Training)

Article 69-3The provisions of Article 69 apply mutatis mutandis pursuant to the designation referred to in Article 35-2, paragraph (1), item (iii) of the Act.In this case, the term a "certificate for designated flight instructor (Format 27-2)" is deemed to be replaced with a "certificate for designated instrument flight instructor (Format 27-3)".

Article 70(1)The provisions of Article 69-2, paragraph (1) apply mutatis mutandis to the person who conducts instrument flight training referred to in Article 35-2, paragraph (2) (hereinafter referred to as an "instrument flight training instructor ").In this case, the terms a "person who undergoes flight training referred to in each item of Article 35, paragraph (1) of the Act (hereinafter referred to as a "person who undergoes flight training")", and a "person who undergoes flight training" are deemed to be replaced with a "person who undergoes instrument flight training, etc.", and the term "flight training" is deemed to be replaced with " instrument flight etc training".

(2)The instrument flight instructor must not provide instructions pertaining to the relevant training without checking the particulars specified in the following items regarding the student who undergoes instrument flight training.

(i)the instructor must obtain materials and information necessary to conduct the training and has the knowledge of their meaning and contents.

(ii)the instructor must carry tools necessary to conduct the training and knows how to use those tools well.

(3)The instrument flight instructor must be on board with a student pilot when the student pilot undergoes instrument flight flies for the training, and must seated in a position where they are able to control the aircraft.

(Reissuance of Certificate of Competency)

Article 71(1)If an airman or pilot student who apply for reissue of certificate of competency or airman medical certificate or a student pilot permit who has lost, torn or got those soiled, or due to change of the registered domicile, address or name, the airman or a student pilot must submit a written application for reissue (Format 28) to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism (in the case of an airman medical certificate issued by a designated aviation medical examiner, the relevant designated aviation medical examiner; the same applies in paragraph (3)).

(2)The written application of the preceding paragraph must be accompanied by one copy of their photograph and the following documents if applying for reissue of a certificate of competency, or be accompanied by the following documents if applying for reissue of airman medical certificate, and two copies of their photograph and the following documents if applying for reissue of student pilot permit.

(i)the certificate of competency or airman medical certificate or a student pilot permit (except when it has been lost)

(ii)the abstract of their family register or a certificate of their family register description or a copy of their resident record which states their registered domicile (only when the registered domicile or name has changed)

(iii)the reason why they lost it and time and date of loss (only when applying for reissue within 30 days from the loss)

(3)The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism reissues the certificate of competency or airman medical certificate or a student pilot permit if the minister deems the application referred to in paragraph (1) is legitimate.

(Surrendering Certificate of Competency)

Article 72A person who holds or keeps a certificate of competency, airman medical certificate or a student pilot permit specified in the following items must surrender this to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism within 10 days accompanied by a document stating the reason.

(i)if the certificate of competency or the approval referred to in Article 35, paragraph (1), item (i) of the Act (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of Article 35, paragraph (5) of the Act) is revoked pursuant to the provisions of Article 30 of the Act, the relevant certificate of competency (in the case of a person relating to aircrew license, the certificate of competency and airman medical certificate; the same applies in item (iv)) or the student pilot permit

(ii)when an advanced-level certificate of competency under the same category has been issued, the certificate pertaining to the current qualification

(iii)if the lost document that was once lost and reissued pursuant to the provisions of the preceding Article is found, the found document

(iv)if an airman or student pilot has died or declared missing, their certificate of competency or student pilot permit

(Certificate of Competency in a Foreign Language)

Article 73(1)An airman who engages in navigation of aircraft specified in each item of Article 126, paragraph (1) of the Act must, when they intend to apply for an issue of a certificate of competency in English, French or Spanish in addition to the certificate of competency referred to in Article 52, apply for the issue to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism together with the certificate of competency they currently hold, accompanied by a photograph.

(2)The amount of issue fee under the provisions of the preceding paragraph is the same as the reissue fee for a certificate of competency under the provisions of Article 71.

(Public Notice of Invalidation)

Article 74The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism issues a public notice of invalidation when the minister receives a notice of loss of a certificate of competency , airman medical certificate or a student pilot permit referred to in Article 238 or a written application for reissue referred to in Article 71 (only when it is filed due to loss) or if any of these has not been returned when it must be returned pursuant to the provisions of Article 72 (except for item (iii)).

Chapter V Airports and Air Navigation Facilities

Section 1 Airports

(Categories of Airports and Classes of Landing Strips)

Article 75(1)Airports are classified into four categories, onshore airports, onshore heliports, water airports and water heliports.

(2)The classes of landing strips are categorized by length of runway for onshore airports, and by length of landing area for water airports, as specified in the following table:

Types of Airports	Classes of runway strips	Length of Runway or Runway Strip
Onshore Airports	A	Longer than 2,550 meters
	B	Longer than 2,150 meters and shorter than 2,550 meters
	C	Longer than 1,800 meters and shorter than 2,150 meters
	D	Longer than 1,500 meters and shorter than 1,800 meters
	E	Longer than 1,280 meters and shorter than 1,500 meters
	F	Longer than 1,080 meters and shorter than 1,280 meters
	G	Longer than 900 meters and shorter than 1,080 meters
	H	Longer than 500 meters and shorter than 900 meters
	J	Longer than 100 meters and shorter than 500 meters
Water Airports	A	Longer than 4,300 meters
	B	Longer than 3,000 meters and shorter than 4,300 meters
	C	Longer than 2,000 meters and shorter than 3,000 meters
	D	Longer than 1,500 meters and shorter than 2,000 meters
	E	Longer than 300 meters and shorter than 1,500 meters

(Application for Approval to Establish Airport)

Article 76(1)A person who intends to apply for approval to establish an airport, etc., pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 38 of the Act must submit three copies of written application including the following particulars, to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)purpose for establishing the airport (whether or not it is established for public use must be added.)

(ii)name and address

(iii)name and location of an airport and location of an airport reference point (including the altitude; the same applies hereinafter)

(iv)planned airport site planned water surface and the names and addresses of the owners

(v)category of airport, class of landingstrip, and strength of runway (for onshore airports and onshore heliports, soil foundation included) or depth of landing strip

(vi)in the case of an airport used for instrument landing or night landing, the relevant information must be provided.

(vii)category and type of aircraft that are intended to use the airport, etc.

(vii)-2length of approach area, slope of approach surface, length of the radius of horizontal surface or slope of transitional surface, for which an application for designation is filed with the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism

(viii)outline of facilities at the airport

(ix)outline of the air navigation facilities to be established

(x)costs required to establish the airport

(xi)schedule commencement and completion dates of the construction work

(xii)administrative plan (Costs required for administration must be provided.)

(xiii)if there is any object that is higher than the approach surface transitional surface, or horizontal surface of a planned airport, or any object that is located extremely close these surfaces, the following particulars:

(a)location and type of the object

(b)The height above the approach surface, transition surface or horizontal surface of the or the degree of proximity to these surfaces

(c)the name and address of the owner of the object or the holderof other title

(d)whether or not the object is to be removed

(e)costs required to remove the object

(f)scheduled commencement and completion dates of construction work pertaining to the removal of the object

(2)The following documents and drawings must be attached to the written application prescribed in the preceding paragraph:

(i)documents prescribing the methods for procuring the following matters

(a)costs required to establish the airport, land, water surface and objects

(b)costs required for the removal of the objects referred to in item (xiii) of the preceding paragraph

(ii)documents describing the breakdown of costs required for administration and the relevant procurement method

(ii)-2documents certifying whether the applicant has the ownership or any other title to use the airport site, or the applicant is able to surely acquire the title or ownership

(iii)the construction design drawings, specifications and construction budget document for airport

(iv)measured drawings

(v)In the case of airports, wind speed and direction chart (the chart of the wind direction and wind speed at places in a planned airport site or planned water or its vicinity must be prepared based on the data collected for more than three years for an onshore airport and water airport, or more than one year for a heliport.)

(v)-2in the case of airports, documents describing the air temperature on the planned airport site or planned water their vicinities (the documents must be prepared based on the data collected for more than five years in accordance with the criteria set forth by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.)

(vi)in the case of airports, documents describing the categories, types, and the estimated number of aircraft that use the airport in a year and the basis of the calculation of the number

(vii)deleted

(viii)in the case of a local government, documents certifying the decision made for the establishment of the airport

(ix)in the case of a corporation other than local governments, the following documents:

(a)an article of incorporation or an article of endowment and a certificate of registered information

(b)balance sheet for the latest business fiscal year

(c)a list of officers or employees and their personal history

(d)documents certifying the decisions made on the establishment of the airport

(x)in the case of a union without a legal personality, the following documents:

(a)copy the written partnership agreement

(b)inventory of the assets of partners

(c)a list of partners and their personal history

(xi)for an individual, the following documents:

(a)inventory of assets

(b)abridged copy of family register

(c)personal history

(xii)in the case of a person who currently manages other business, documents describing the category and outline of the business

(Measured drawings)

Article 77The measured drawings referred to in item (iv), paragraph (2), of the preceding Article are as follows:

(i)floor plan: is to represent it at a scale of 1:5,000 or smaller and to indicate the following matters:

(a)Scale and orientation

(b)boundary lines of an airport site

(c)geoterrain of the surrounding areas more than 100 kilometers away from the airport and names of the municipalities area therein

(d)location of planned airport facilities

(e)roads that connect major roads, urban area and public transportation systems

(ii)vertical cross-sectional drawing of a landing strip: the vertical cross-sectional drawing of a landing strip is to represent the drawing at a scales of 1:5,000 or smaller in the transverse direction and 1:500 or small in the longitudinal direction and is to specify the following particulars.

(a)survey station number, distance between survey stations (it must be 100 meters), and incremental distance.

(b)height of the land, construction foundation surface and embankment and depth of the cut earth at each survey station

(iii)transverse cross-sectional drawing of a landing strip: the transverse cross-section of a landing strip is to be determined at its three locations, namely, at its both ends and center, representing it at a scale of 1:1,000 or smaller in the transverse direction and 1:50 or smaller in the longitudinal direction, and indicates the following particulars:

(a)survey station number and distance between survey stations

(b)height of the land, construction foundation surface and embankment and depth of the cut earth at each survey station

(iv)map of the surrounding area: the map is to clearly represent the project plane of the approach surface, transitional surface and horizontal surface of objects and a planned airport referred to in item (xiii) of paragraph (1) of Article 76 at a scale of 1:10000, and the particulars set forth in (a) and (b) of that item must be specified in a drawing of the area where the relevant objects exist at a scale of 1:5,000.

(Public Notice of Application for Approval to Establish Airport)

Article 78(1)Particulars that must be announced to the public and posted pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (3) of Article 38 of the Act, when an application for approval to establish an airport is filed, are particulars set forth in that paragraph and particulars set forth in items (i) through (v) of paragraph (1) of Article 76 and particulars set forth in items (viii) and (ix) of that paragraph.

(2)The provisions referred to in the preceding paragraph apply mutatis mutandis to the case when the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism establishes an airport.

(Criteria for Establishing Airports)

Article 79(1)The criteria referred to in item (i) of paragraph (1) of Article 39 of the Act (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to paragraph (2) of Article 43 of the Act) are as follows:

(i)building structures, plants and other objects being located in the vicinity of an airport, which are deemed by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism that those do not prevent take-offs or landings of aircraft; provided, however, that this does not apply when the minister finds that the object can be definitely removed by the scheduled completion date of the construction work of the airport.

(ii)airspace for circling approaches (meaning a specific airspace above an airport which is deemed to be the minimum airspace for aircraft waiting for safe landing, the same applies hereinafter) does not overlap an airspace for circling approaches previously designated for an existing airport.

(iii)in the case of an onshore airport, except when the airport obviously has a special reason, must have a runway, landing strip and taxiway conforming to the standards listed in the following table, which depends on the class of landing strip:

	Classes of Runway Strips		A	B	C	D	E	F	G	H	J
Runway	Width		Over 45 meters	Over 45 meters	Over 45 meters	Over 45 meters	Over 45 meters	Over 30 meters	Over 30 meters	Over 25 meters	Over 15 meters
	Maximum longitudinal slope	(i) a section located at a distance of one-fourth length of a runway	0.8%	0.8%	0.8%	0.8%	1%	1%	1%	1.5%	2%
		(ii) section other than that specified in (i)	1%	1%	1%	1%
	Maximum transverse slope		1.5%	1.5%	1.5%	1.5%	1.5%	1.5%	1.5%	2%	3%
Runway Strip	Length		The length obtained by extending the longer side of a runway by 60 meters towards both shorter sides
	Distance from the longitudinal centerline of the runway in the longitudinal direction to one of the longer side of a runway strip	For instrumental landing	Over 150 meters	Over 150 meters	Over 150 meters	Over 150 meters	Over 150 meters	Over 150 meters	Over 150 meters	Over 75 meters	Over 75 meters
		For non-instrumental landing	Over 75 meters	Over 75 meters	Over 75 meters	Over 75 meters	Over 75 meters	Over 60 meters	Over 60 meters	Over 30 meters	Over 30 meters
	Maximum longitudinal slope of a section within the smallest area required for non-instrumental landing		1.5%	1.5%	1.75%	1.75%	2%	2%	2%	2%	2%
	Maximum transverse slope	(i) a section within the smallest area required for non-instrumental landing	2.5%	2.5%	2.5%	2.5%	2.5%	2.5%	2.5%	2.5%	3%
		(ii) a section other than that specified in (i)	5%	5%	5%	5%	5%	5%	5%	5%	5%
Taxiway	Width		Over 23 meters	over 23 meters	over 23 meters	over 18 meters	over 18 meters	over 18 meters	over 18 meters	over 9 meters	over 6 meters
	Maximum longitudinal slope		1.5%	1.5%	1.5%	1.5%	3%	3%	3%	3%	3%
	Maximum transverse slope		1.5%	1.5%	1.5%	1.5%	1.5%	1.5%	1.5%	1.5%	1.5%
	Clearance between a taxiway edge and a fixed obstacle		Over 39 meters	Over 39 meters	Over 30 meters	Over 30 meters	Over 26 meters	Over 26 meters	Over 26 meters	Over 16 meters	Over 16 meters

(iv)in the case of onshore airports and onshore heliports, runways, taxiways and aprons (each of them include foundation ground, the same applies in item (vii) and item (i) of Article 85) and underground structures that may affect the strength of the facilities must possess sufficient strength to withstand the estimated number of operations of aircraft.

(v)in the case of an onshore airport and onshore heliport, there must be a sufficient distance between the runway and taxiway and both of them must have proper angle and shape at each connection point in order to secure the safety of the aircraft that fly over the runway and taxiway.

(vi)in the case of an onshore airport and onshore heliport, each edge of the runway, taxiway and apron must be provided with a shoulder having an adequate width, strength and surface.

(vii)in the case of an onshore airport, the runway, landing strip and apron must have the following performance characteristics:

(a)runways

1.Damages caused by its own weight, earth pressure, earthquake emotion [of the earthquake motion that is expectedly to occur on the planned facility site, which is limited to those likely to occur during the period in which the designs of facilities will be used (meaning the period determined as the period in which the design continues to satisfy the performance required for the facilities, the same applies hereinafter) of the facilities by considering the relationships between the return period of earthquake motion and the period in which the designs of facilities will be used, the same applies hereinafter], water pressure, waves (of the waves that is expected to occur on the planned facility site, which is limited to those likely to occur during the period in which the design of the facilities will be used, the same applies hereinafter), etc. should neither impair the functions of the facilities nor affect their continuous use thereof.

2.A runway must have proper surface in consideration of natural conditions, usage status and various other conditions of the facilities.

(b)landing strip

1.Damages caused by its own weight, earth pressure, earthquake motion, water pressure, waves, etc. should neither impair the functions of the facilities nor affect their continuous use.

2.A landing strip has proper surface in consideration of natural conditions, usage status and various other conditions of the facilities.

(c)taxiway

1.Damages caused by its own weight, earth pressure, earthquake motion, water pressure, waves, etc. should neither impair the functions of the facilities nor affect their continuous use.

2.A taxiway must have proper surface in consideration of natural conditions, usage status and various other conditions of the facilities.

(d)apron

1.Damages caused by its own weight, earth pressure, earthquake motion, water pressure, waves, etc. should neither impair the functions of the facilities nor affect their continuous use.

2.An apron must have proper surface in consideration of natural conditions, usage status and various other conditions of the facilities.

3.In order for aircraft to be parked safely, an apron must have adequate surface area and proper shape.

(viii)in the case of onshore heliports, it must have a runway(s) and landing strip(s), and when a taxiway(s) is built, the taxiway must conform to the standards listed in the following table; provided, however, that this does not apply when there is a special reason.

Classification		Establishment Criteria
Runway and runway strip	Length	1.2 times of the length of the projected plane of aircraft that may avail the facilities
	Width	More than 1.2 times longer than the width of the projected plane of aircraft expected to be used
	Maximum longitudinal slope	2%
	Maximum transverse slope	2.5%
Taxiway	Width	More than two times longer than the width of landing gear of an aircraft expected to be operated
	Maximum longitudinal slope	3%
	Maximum transverse slope	3%
Clearance between taxiway edge and fixed obstacle		The length longer than the length obtained by subtracting the width of landing gear from the width of project plane of an aircraft expected to be operated

(ix)in the case of an onshore heliport and a water heliport, the departure route and approach route pertaining to the heliport must have the site conditions in which the helicopter can land safely without endangering people or objects on the land or water, when the the motor of a helicopter alone stops while flying.

(x)in the case of an onshore heliport to be built on a building structure, it must have the following ancillary facilities:

(a)aircraft fallout prevention facility

(b)fuel spill prevention facility

(xi)in the case of a water airport, it must have a landing strip, water area for circling approaches and waterway taxi conforming to the standards set forth in the following table, according to the class of landing strip:

Classes of Runway Strip			A	B	C	D	E
Runway Strip	Width		Over 255 meters	Over 255 meters	Over 255 meters	Over 255 meters	Over 255 meters
		For non-instrumental landing	Over 255 meters	Over 180 meters	Over 150 meters	Over 100 meters	Over 65 meters
Circling approach water area	Diameter		Over 510 meters	Over 360 meters	Over 300 meters
Taxi waterway	Width		Over 120 meters	Over 105 meters	Over 90 meters	Over 75 meters	Over 40 meters

(xii)in the case of a water airport and a water heliport, the landing strip, water area for circling approaches and waterway taxi must have a sufficient depth at low tide, and the conditions of water surface are suited for the safe navigation of aircraft.

(xiii)in the case of a water heliport, it must have a landing strip and taxiing waterway conforming to the standards listed in the following table:

Classification		Establishment Criteria
Runway strip	Length	More than five times longer than the length of projected plane of an aircraft expected to be operated
	Width	More than three times longer than the width of projected plane of an aircraft expected to be operated
Width of taxi waterway		More than two times longer than the width of projected plane of an aircraft expected to be operated

(xiv)it must have the airport sign (according to the forms given in the appended table 5) according to the classification specified in the following table; provided, however, that it may be omitted in the case of an unpaved runway or taxiway on which it is difficult to build runway markings or taxiway markings.

Types of airport sign board		Particulars to be marked	Airport or runway that needs to be established	Place to install
Airport name signs		Name of airport, etc.	Airport, etc. (except those whose name can be identified by land features in the peripheral area)	Place that can readily be identified from aircraft in flight
Landing strip markings		Boundary line of a runway strip	Onshore heliport, water airport and water heliport (limited to the case where boundary of a runway strip is not clearly recognizable)	Longer side of a runway strip
Runway markings	Runway designation markings	Bearing of a runway observed from the approaching direction that is determined in the clockwise direction from the magnetic north and, in the case of a parallel runway, the order from the left side	Runway of an onshore airport	A location near the threshold of a runway
	Runway centerline markings	Runway centerline in the longitudinal direction		On the runway centerline in the longitudinal direction
	Runway threshold markings	Threshold of a runway	Runway for instrument landing of an aircraft at an onshore airport	A location 6 meters away from the threshold of the runway
	Runway midpoint markings	Runway centerline in the transverse direction	Runway of an onshore airport,etc. (except those on which runway distance marker lights are installed)	On the runway centerline in the transverse direction
	Aiming point markings	Landing aiming point on a runway	A runway at an onshore airport over 1,200 meters and a runway for instrument landing shorter than 1,200 meters	A location more than 150 meters away from the threshold of runway
	Touchdown zone markings	Landing touchdown zone on a runway	A runway at an onshore airport over 1,200 meters, and a runway for instrument landing over 900 meters and shorter than 1,200 meters for instrument approach and landing, and an onshore heliport	In the case of a runway of an onshore airport, a location between 922.5 meters to 150 meters from the threshold of a runway and in the case of an onshore heliport, the center of a runway
	Runway side stripe markings	Boundary of a runway	Runway at an onshore airport, etc. (limited to runways for instrument approach and landing and other runways with indefinite boundaries)	Longer side of the runway
	Snow-covered takeoff/landing area indicators	A zone of a snow-covered runway that can be used for take-off-and-landing	Runway of an onshore airport (limited to the case when boundaries are not clearly visible due to snow)	Longer side of the runway that can be used for take-off-and-landing
Overrun area markings		Overrun area	Onshore airport, etc.	Paved overrun area
Taxiway markings	Taxiway centerline markings	Longitudinal centerline of a taxiway and the paths to and from a runway	Onshore airport, etc.	On the longitudinal centerline of a taxiway and on the paths to and from a runway
	Runway holding position marking	A position where aircraft should make a temporary stop before entering a runway		A location on a taxiway that is 30 meters away from the longitudinal centerline of a runway
	Mandatory instruction markings	Particulars indicated by taxiing guidance signs (limited to those indicating a location where aircraft should make a temporary stop; hereinafter the same applies in this paragraph)	Onshore airport, etc. (limited to the case where taxiing guidance signs cannot be installed or the width of a taxiway exceeds 60 meters, except when no taxiing guidance signs need to be installed)	A location on the both sides of a taxiway centerline markings and in the holding area before the runway holding position marking, which is at least one meter away from each marking
	Taxiway side stripe markings	Boundary of a taxiway	Onshore airport, etc. (limited to the case where taxiway boundaries are indefinite)	Edge of the taxiway
Wind direction indicators		Wind direction	Airport, etc.	A location not affected by air disturbance due to neighboring objects and can be readily identified by an aircraft

(2)particulars necessary for performance verification of the runway, landing strip, taxiway, apron, and underground structures that may affect the strength thereof and for shoulders specified in items (iv) through (vii) of preceding paragraph are determined by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(3)Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (1), if the installation of aerodrome sign does not conform to the standards prescribed in that paragraph because of temporary situation in construction work and other situation, the sign may be installed in a method different from the standards.

(Interested Persons)

Article 80The interested person prescribed in paragraph (2) of Article 39 of the Act, (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 43 of the Act, paragraph (2) of Article 55-2 of the Act and paragraph (2) of Article 56-2 of the Act.) mean the person specified in the following items:

(i)applicant for approval

(ii)a person who holds the ownership, superficies right, farming rights, servitude, stone quarrying rights, pledge, mortgage, rights created by loan for use and lease of land or buildings which are located within the area of airport, etc., approach area or transitional surface, extended approach surface, conical surface or outer horizontal surface and other rights pertaining to land or buildings

(iii)a person who holds mining rights, right to use hot springs, fishing rights or piscary, rights to utilize running water, sea water or other kinds of water within the areas referred to in the preceding item

(iv)local government administering the areas referred to in item (ii)

(v)a person who uses an airport, etc.

(Public Notice and Notification)

Article 81(1)The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism must, when the minister intends to hold a public hearing under the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 39 of the Act, (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 43 of the Act, paragraph (2) of Article 55-2 of the Act and paragraph (2) of Article 56-2 of the Act), issue a public notice in the official gazette including the details of the matter, date and time, venue, chairperson, application form of public statement, and where to submit the application, due date, and number of copies of public statement, no later than ten days before the public hearing.

(2)When a public hearing does not end within the day and time referred to in the preceding paragraph, it is sufficient for the chairperson to orally notify the date and time and venue of the subsequent public hearing, notwithstanding the provisions of the preceding paragraph.

(Appointment of Chairperson)

Article 81-2A public hearing is chaired by a person who is appointed by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism from among the officials who are deemed to have no special interest in the topic.

(Application for Public Statement)

Article 81-3(1)An interested person who intends to present a public statement must submit an application for public statement and a public statement to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism by the due date specified in the public notice issued pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 81.

(2)An application for public statement must include the name, address, occupation age (in the case of a judicial person, its name and address, and the name, occupation and age of the person who gives public statement as a representative), and if the person is for or against the matter and particulars explaining the interest in the matter.

(3)A public statement must include the details of the statement that the interested person intends to make in a public hearing.

(4)The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism may, when the minister finds it necessary, request that the person who intends to make a statement in a public hearing as an interested person submit documents certifying the interest in the matter by specifying where to submit, due date and number of copies thereof.

(Selection of Speaker at Public Hearing)

Article 81-4The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism may, when the minister finds the details of public statement are either beyond the scope of the matter or the like, select a speaker at the public hearing from among the interested persons who have applied for public statement.

(Commissioning Witness)

Article 81-5The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism may, when the minister finds it necessary, have a person other than an interested person attend the public hearing and present their opinions or make a report.

(Cancellation of Holding of Public Hearing)

Article 81-6The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism must, when the minister finds that it is no longer necessary to hold a public hearing after the date on which public notice was issued pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 81, promptly notify the known interested persons of the cancellation of the public hearing and concurrently issue a public notice by an appropriate means.

(Changes of Date and Time of Public Hearing)

Article 81-7The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism may, when the minister finds it necessary to change the matters that have been publicly notified or announced pursuant to the provisions of Article 81 due to a natural disaster or any other emergency and inevitable situations, change the matters that have been publicly notified or announced by promptly notifying the known interested persons of the changes.

(Time Limitations for Making a Public Statement)

Article 81-8The chairperson may, when the chairperson finds it necessary to keep the meeting in order, limit the time assigned to a speaker at the public hearing.

(Public Statement)

Article 81-9The public statement by a speaker at a public hearing must be made according to the written public statement; provided, however, that this does not apply to the case when the speaker answers questions by the chairperson or the chairperson finds it particularly necessary and permits the speaker.

(Discontinuation of Public Statement)

Article 81-10(1)The chairperson may, when the chairperson finds that a public statement by a speaker at a public hearing falls under any of the following items, have the speaker stop their public statement:

(i)if a public statement is made beyond the time assigned by the chairperson pursuant to the provisions of Article 81-8.

(ii)if a public statement overlaps the matters that have already been stated in the public hearing or it is beyond the scope of the matter.

(iii)if a public statement violates the provisions of the preceding Article.

(2)The chairperson may, when a speaker at a public hearing fails to follow the instructions to stop under the provisions of the preceding paragraph, have the speaker leave the public hearing.

(Reading a Public Statement for Speaker)

Article 81-11When a speaker at a public hearing is unable to attend the public hearing due to illness or any other inevitable situation, a public statement is to be made by another person who reads it for the speaker at the public hearing.

(Documentary Evidence)

Article 81-12The chairperson may, when the chairperson finds it necessary, request a speaker at the public hearing to submit documents that certify the matters stated at public hearing by specifying where to submit, due date and number of copies thereof.

(Records of Public Statement)

Article 81-13(1)Matters stated at a public hearing must be recorded by stenography or other means.

(2)The record referred to in the preceding paragraph, when it is requested by the public, must be made available for public inspection.

(Issuance of Tickets for Observers)

Article 81-14The Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism may, when the minister finds it necessary, issue tickets for observers and allow only the ticket holders to observe the public hearing.

(Rules to be Observed)

Article 81-15(1)An observer must, when entering or leaving the venue of public hearing, follow the instructions given by the chairperson or the relevant official(s) appointed by the chairperson.

(2)The chairperson may have an observer who fails to follow the instructions under the preceding paragraph leave the public hearing.

(3)The provisions referred to in the preceding two paragraphs apply mutatis mutandis to a speaker at a public hearing when the speaker is not making a public statement.

(Request for Change of Scheduled Construction Completion Date)

Article 82A person who intends to obtain the approval under the provisions of the main clause of paragraph (2) of Article 41 of the Act must submit a request for change of scheduled construction completion date providing the particulars set forth in the following items to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name and address

(ii)name and location of the airport

(iii)scheduled completion date after it is changed

(iv)reasons for the change

(Valid Period Referred to in Proviso to Paragraph (2) of Article 41 of the Act)

Article 82-2The valid period specified by Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism set forth in the proviso to paragraph (2) of Article 41 of the Act is one year.

(Notice of Change of Scheduled Construction Completion Date)

Article 82-3A person who intends to submit a notice of change of scheduled construction date pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (3) of Article 41 of the Act is to submit a request for change of scheduled construction completion date including the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name and address

(ii)name and location of the airport

(iii)changed scheduled date

(iv)reasons for the change

(Request for Construction Completion Inspection)

Article 83(1)Pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 42 of the Act, a person who intends to request for construction completion inspection for an airport, etc., must submit a request for construction completion inspection for airport including the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name and address

(ii)name and location of the airport

(iii)construction completion date

(2)Provisions of the preceding paragraph apply mutatis mutandis to the request for construction completion inspection pertaining to the alteration of airport, etc., pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 42 of the Act as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 43 of the Act.

(Notice of Service Commencement Date)

Article 84(1)Pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (3) of Article 42 of the Act, a person who intends to submit a notice of service commencement date of an airport, etc., must submit a notice of service commencement date of airport, etc. including the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name and address

(ii)name and location of the airport, etc.

(iii)service commencement date

(2)Provisions of the preceding paragraph apply mutatis mutandis to the notice of service recommencement date of airport, etc. that has been altered or whose services have been suspended pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (3) of Article 42 of the Act as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (5) of Article 44 of the Act, as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 43 of the Act, paragraph (5) of Article 44 of the Act or paragraph (2) of Article 45 of the Act, respectively.

(Significant Changes and Alterations)

Article 85Significant changes and alterations for which the applicant must obtain the permission under in the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 43 of the Act depends on the categories of an airport as follows:

(i)onshore airports and onshore heliports

(a)change in the location of reference point

(b)new construction of a runway, landing strip, taxiway or apron

(c)change in the length, width or strength of a runway or landing strip

(d)change in the width or strength of a taxiway

(e)extension of or change in the strength of an apron

(ii)water airports and water heliports

(a)change of location of reference point

(b)new construction of landing strip, taxi waterway or water area for circling approaches

(c)change in the length, width or depth of a landing strip

(d)change in the width or depth of a taxiing waterway or change in the diameter or depth of the water area for circling approaches

(Application for Permission to Make Alterations)

Article 86(1)A person intending to apply for permission to make alterations to an airport, etc. pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 38 of the Act as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 43 of the Act is to submit three copies of the written application for permission to make alterations to airport, etc., including the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism:

(i)name and address

(ii)name and location of the airport, etc.

(iii)particulars to be altered (documents and drawings comparing the old and new particulars must be attached.)

(iv)costs required to make alterations

(v)scheduled construction commencement and completion dates

(vi)if an administrative plan is changed, the administrative plan after the change

(vii)reasons for the alteration

(2)The following documents and drawings must be attached to the written application referred to in the preceding paragraph:

(i)documents describing the costs required for alterations and the methods for procuring land and objects

(ii)drawings and documents for construction design, specifications and construction budget statement

(iii)when an alterations is made to the airport site, etc., documents certifying whether the applicant has the ownership for the site pertaining to the alteration or any other title to use the airport site, or the applicant is definitely able to acquire the title or ownership.

(iv)if an applicant is a judicial person or partnership, documents certifying the decision made by the applicant on the alteration.

(Public Notice of Application for Permission to Make Alterations)

Article 87(1)Particulars that must be announced to the public and posted pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (3) of Article 38 of the Act are as follows, as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 43 of the Act:

(i)name and address of the applicant

(ii)name and location of the airport, etc.

(iii)particulars to be changed

(iv)if an alteration is made to approach surface, transition surface or horizontal surface, the approach surface, transition surface or horizontal surface after the alteration

(2)The provisions of the preceding paragraph apply mutatis mutandis to the case where the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism makes alteration to facilities including an airport.

(Application for Permission to Suspend or Discontinue Services)

Article 88(1)Pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 44 of the Act, a person intending to apply for permission to suspend or discontinue the provision of an airport, must submit an application for permission to suspend(discontinue) the provision of airport including the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name and address

(ii)name and location of the aerodrome

(iii)in the case of application for permission to suspend, the scheduled suspension commencement date and the period of suspension

(iv)in the case of application for permission to discontinue the provision, the scheduled provision discontinued date

(v)reasons for the suspension or discontinuation

(2)If an applicant is a judicial person or partnership, the documents certifying the decision made by the applicant on the suspension or discontinuation must be attached to the written application referred to in the preceding paragraph.

(3)The provisions of the preceding two paragraphs apply mutatis mutandis to a notice of suspension or discontinuation of a private airport.In this case, the terms a "person intending to apply for permission" and "application for permission" in paragraph (1) of this Article are deemed to be replaced with a "person intending to submit a notice" and the term "application" in the preceding paragraph is deemed to be replaced with "notice".

(Request for Inspection of Airport Resuming its Provision)

Article 89(1)A person intending to file a request for inspection of airport resuming its provision pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (4) of Article 44 of the Act (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) Article 45 of the Act) is to submit a written application for inspection of airport resuming its provision including the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name and address

(ii)name and location of the airport

(iii)scheduled provision recommencement date

(2)If an applicant is a judicial person or partnership, the documents certifying the decision made by the applicant on the recommencement of provision must be attached to the written application referred to in the preceding paragraph.

(Public Notice of Provision Commencement)

Article 90(1)Pursuant to the provisions of Article 46 of the Act, the particulars that must be announced to the public when a notice of the provision commencement date of airport are as prescribed below:

(i)name and address of the establisher

(ii)name and location of the airport

(iii)provision commencement date

(2)The provisions of the preceding paragraph apply mutatis mutandis to the case where the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism establishes an airport.

(Public Notice of Change or Suspension)

Article 91Pursuant to the provisions of Article 46 of the Act, the particulars that must be announced to the public if any change is made to the particulars about the airport that have been announced to the public or when the provision of airport is suspended, resumed or discontinued (including as apply mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of Article 55, paragraph (2), item (ii) of the Act) are as follows, beyond what is set forth in items (i) and (ii) of paragraph (1) of the preceding Article:

(i)if any change is made to the particulars that have been publicly notified: the particulars that have been changed

(ii)in the case of a suspension, the scheduled commencement date for the suspension and the period for suspension

(iii)in the case of a resumption or discontinuation: the scheduled date

(Standards for Safety and Security)

Article 92The standards for safety and security referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 47 of the Act (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 55-2) are as set forth below.

(i)an airport must be maintained according to the standards prescribed in Article 79 (excluding those set forth in paragraph (1), item (ii)).

(ii)The functions of facilities of an airport must be maintained by conducting inspections and cleaning.

(iii)when conducting improvement work or any other construction work is to be implemented, the navigation of aircraft must be ensured by taking appropriate measures such as setting necessary sings.

(iv)the prohibited acts prescribed in Article 53 of the Act must be displayed so that the public may recognize it easily.

(v)signs, etc. to define the borders in the restricted area referred to in paragraph (3) of Article 53 of the Act must be built, and measures to prevent people or vehicles, etc., from entering there must be taken without good reason.

(vi)fire-extinguishing facilities and rescue facilities required for fire on an aircraft and other accidents in an airport, etc., must be installed, and if an accident occurs, necessary measures must be taken immediately.

(vii)when the situation that may prevent safe take-off and landing of an aircraft occurs, due to natural disaster or other causes, necessary measures to prevent critical situation, such as those for immediately suspending the provision of airport must be taken and the system to communicate with the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism required in these situations must be established.

(viii)an airport must have facilities that may be used for communication with relevant administrative organs.

(ix)an airport must keep a logbook for airport and record the following particulars and retain it for one year:

(a)status of facilities including an airport

(b)details of construction works implemented

(c)when a disaster or accident has occurred, the time, causes, situation, and countermeasures taken

(d)particulars communicated with relevant organs

(e)usage of an airport by aircraft

(f)other particulars required for administration of an airport

(x)in the case of an airport, when the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism finds it necessary, the facilities required for meteorological observation must be installed, which are used by aircraft taking off and landing at the airport, and the meteorological observation must be conducted.

(xi)in the case of an airport, when the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism finds it necessary, a wireless telephone system for aeronautical communications must be installed, and information required for the navigation of aircraft while taking off and landing at the airport must be offered.

(xii)in the case of an airport, a person engaged in business at the airport must take preventive measures against unlawful seizure of aircraft (meaning the measures for preventing unlawful seizure and destruction of aircraft; the same applies hereinafter).

(xiii)in the case of an airport, a council composed of the airport establisher and relevant organs must be formed to have necessary consultations with the relevant organs on preventive measures against the acts of unlawful seizure of aircraft taken at the airport.

(xiv)in the case of an airport, beyond what is set forth in the preceding items, necessary measures must be taken to ensure the safety of personnel engaged in aviational traffic and services provided at the airport.

(xv)in the case of an airport, an airport guidebook including the following particulars accompanied by a measured drawings must be kept:

(a)name and address of the airport establisher

(b)name and location of an airport and location of a reference point

(c)airport site and the name and address of the site owner

(d)category of airport, class of landing strip, and the strength of a runway (for onshore airports, foundation ground is included) or the depth of a landing strip

(e)length of the approach area, slope of the approach surface, length of the radius of the approach surface or slope of the transition surface

(f)outline of facilities in the airport

(g)outline of air navigation facilities

(h)if there is any object that is higher than the approach surface, transition surface, or horizontal surface, or any object that is located extremely close to these surfaces, the following particulars

1. Location and category of the object

2. The height above the approach surface of the object, transition surface or horizontal surface or the degree of proximity to these surfaces

(i)documents describing the air temperature at the airport site or nearby place (the documents must be prepared based on the data collected for five years or more with the standards set forth by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.)

(j)specific method to administer in compliance with the standards prescribed in sub-item (a) to the preceding item

(Exceptions of limitation of objects)

Article 92-2The objects prescribed in Order of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism referred to in the proviso to paragraph (1) of Article 49 of the Act (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 55-2 of the Act and paragraph (2) of Article 56-3 of the Act) are as follows.

(i)temporary structures

(ii)the lightening protection system that must be installed pursuant to the provisions of Article 33 of the Building Standards Act (Act No. 201 of 1950)

(iii)objects that do not particuarly hinder the safety of aircraft in flight in regard to terrain or in relation to existing objects

(Prohibited Acts)

Article 92-3The important facilities in an airport referred to in paragraph (1) of Article 53 of the Act include landing strip taxiway, apron, hangar, airport signs and refueling facilities.

Article 92-4The acts referred to in paragraph (2) of Article 53 of the Act, which are likely to cause a danger to flight operations include those set forth below:

(i)throwing any objects at an aircraft

(ii)leaving metallic pieces, cloth or any other objects on the landing strips, taxiways or aprons

(iii)using fire without good reason on landing strips, taxiways, aprons, hangar floors, and at places where the fire prohibited sign according to the form (d) referred to in item (xxviii) are displayed by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism or the aerodrome establisher.

(Notification of Airport Charges)

Article 93(1)Pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 54 of the Act, a person intending to submit a notice of determined airport charges or a notice of change thereof must submit a written notice of determined airport charges and (change of airport charges) including the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism:

(i)name and address

(ii)name and location of the aerodrome

(iii)the category and amount of airport charges to be determined or changed (in the case of a notice of change, the comparison between the old and new must be specified).

(iv)scheduled implementation date

(v)in the case of a notice of change, reasons for the change

(2)The written notice prescribed in the preceding paragraph must be accompanied by documents describing the basis for calculating the airport charges.

(Administrative Rules)

Article 93-2(1)An airport establisher must set forth an administrative rules on the matters specified below:

(i)operating hours at an airport

(ii)if a method for using a runway or a taxiway by an aircraft is to be specified, the relevant method.

(iii)when the places for boarding or disembarking an aircraft, cargo loading or unloading, refueling, places for aircraft maintenance or inspections, or methods and place to park aircraft are to be specified, the places and methods.

(iv)particulars regarding airport charges of which notice referred to in paragraph (i) of Article 54 of the Act has been submitted and their collection and refunding.

(v)if the airport establisher intends to restrict persons from entering the airport, the method for restricting entry.

(vi)if the airport establisher intends to restrict acts, the restricted acts

(vii)other particulars required as requirements for providing airport facilities

(2)The provisions of the preceding paragraph apply mutatis mutandis to the case where the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism establishes an airport.

(Request for Approval for Successor in Title of the Airport Establisher)

Article 94(1)A person intending to obtain approval for the successor in title of the airport establisher, etc. must submit a written application for approval for successor in title of airport establisher including the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name and address of the successor

(ii)name and address of the inheritee

(iii)name and location of the airport, etc.

(iv)requirements to be a successor

(v)date on which the requestor intends to succeed the airport

(vi)reason why the person needs to succeed the airport

(2)The following documents must be attached to the written request prescribed in the preceding paragraph:

(i)documents certifying the requirements for successor

(ii)In the case of a local public entity, documents certifying the decisions made on the succession

(iii)In the case of a judicial person other than local governments, the following documents:

(a)article of incorporation or articles of endowment and certificate of registered information

(b)balance sheet for the latest business fiscal year

(c)name list and personal history of officers or members

(d)documents certifying the decision made on the succession

(e)documents providing other particulars for reference

(iv)in the case of a partnership having no legal personality, the following documents:

(a)copy of partnership agreement

(b)inventory of the assets of partners

(c)name list and personal history of partners

(d)documents providing other particulars for reference

(v)for an individual, the following documents:

(a)inventory of assets

(b)extract copy of family register

(c)personal history

(d)documents providing other particulars for reference

(Notice of Successor in Title of Airport Establisher due to Succession)

Article 95(1)A heir intending to submit a notice of successor in title of the airport establisher, etc., under the provision of paragraph (4) of Article 55 of the Act is to submit a notice of successor in title of airport establisher providing the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name and address of notifier and the relationship between the heir and the decedent

(ii)name and address of the decedent

(iii)name and location of the airport, etc.

(iv)commencement date for inheritance

(2)The following documents must be attached to the written notice prescribed in the preceding paragraph:

(i)documents certifying the relationships between the notifier and the decedent

(ii)if there are any heir(s) other than the notifier, documents describing the name and address of that person(s) and a written consent of the relevant person(s)

(Conical Surface)

Article 96The gradient and length of the radius under the provisions of paragraph (3) of Article 56 of the Act are as specified below:

(i)an airport used for aircraft landing using the instrumental landing system or aircraft landing using the precision approach radar

(a)gradient:1/50th

(b)length of radius:16,500 meters

(ii)in the case of onshore airports, etc. other than those prescribed in the preceding item, gradient and length of radius depend on the class of landing strip as prescribed in the following table (in the case of an airport having two or more landing strips, the longest landing strip):

Classes of landing strip	Gradient	Length of radius
A	1/40th	10,000 meters
B	1/40th	8,000 meters
C and D	1/40th	6,000 meters
E	1/30th	6,000 meters
F	1/20th	4,000 meters

(Outer Horizontal Surface)

Article 96-2Length of the radius under the provisions of paragraph (4) of Article 56 of the Act is 24,000 meters.

(Public Notice of Specifications for Extended Approach Surface)

Article 96-3Particulars that must be publicly notified and posted pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (3) of Article 38 of the Act as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 56-2 of the Act are as prescribed below:

(i)name and location of the airport

(ii)extended approach surface, conical surface or outer horizontal surface that are to be specified or altered

(Public Notice of Designated Public Facilities)

Article 96-4Particulars to be publicly notified pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 56-4 of the Act are as prescribed below:

(i)name and location of facilities and outline of installations

(ii)commencement date to provide facilities

(iii)requirements to use facilities

Section 2 Radio Navigation Aids

(Categories of Radio Navigation Aids)

Article 97The categories of radio navigation aids prescribed in item (i) of Article 1 are as specified below:

(i)non-directional (radio) beacon (meaning a non-directional radio beacon; the same applies hereinafter)

(ii)directional radio range beacon

(iii)z-marker beacon

(iv)VOR (meaning a VHF omni-directional radio range; the same applies hereinafter)

(v)TACAN (tactical air navigation system)

(vi)ILS (meaning the instrument landing system; the same applies hereinafter)

(vii)DME (meaning a distance measuring equipment; the same applies hereinafter)

(viii)LORAN A (meaning long-range navigation A; the same applies hereinafter)

(ix)SBAS (meaning the satellite-based augmentation system; the same applies hereinafter)

(Application for Permission to Eestablish Aeronautical Radio Navigation Aids)

Article 98(1)Pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 38 of the Act, a person intending to apply for permission to establish radio navigation aids, must submit three copies of applications for permission to establish radio navigation aids providing the particulars prescribed below, to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name and address

(ii)purpose of establishment

(iii)categories and names of radio navigation aids

(iv)locations and addresses of radio navigation aids

(v)name and address of owner of the site in which the radio navigation aids will be built

(vi)outline of facilities (if the facilities indicate course directions, at least its direction, rated output of and frequencies assigned to a transmitter must be provided)

(vii)management plan (preferred operating hours must be provided.)

(viii)estimated costs for the establishment and management

(ix)scheduled construction commencement and completion dates

(2)The provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 76 (excluding those pertaining to the provisions of item (i) (b) and items (iv) through (vi)) apply mutatis mutandis to the application referred to in the preceding paragraph.

(Standards for Establishing Aeronautical Radio Navigation Aids)

Article 99(1)The establishment standards, such as location and structure of the radio navigation aids prescribed in paragraph (1) of Article 39 of this Act (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 43) are as prescribed below:

(i)aids must be installed in ways that do not impair the functions of existing radio navigation aids.

(ii)aids must be installed in a place where the functions of radio navigation aids are least affected by land features, and concurrently, in ways that the functions thereof are not impaired by building structures, plants and other objects.

(iii)in the case of an NDB, it must have the following performance characteristics and structure:

(a)the horizontal radiation characteristics of a radio wave must be non-directional if possible and its polarized wave must be a vertically polarized wave, which do not include a horizontally polarized wave as much as possible.

(b)it must emits a carrier wave that is amplitude-modulated at an audible frequency.

(c)NDB in which a modulated audible frequency is key-operated in order to transmit an identifier code.

(d)the modulated frequency must be 1,020 Hz and its deviation does not exceed 50 Hz.

(e)it must transmit the identifier code at a speed of seven words per minute, and two consecutive times every 30 seconds (in the case of an NDB specified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, which is used for aircraft approach or holding, eight times or more per minute).

(f)it must have radiation characteristics that during the transmitting an identifier code, it can definitely identify the code within a range not exceeding a rated effective coverage (meaning a distance in which the vertical electric intensity of a radiated radio wave reaches 70 microvolts per meter during daytime; hereafter the same applies to NDB)

(g)the carrier power does not change its value whenever possible when an identification code is sent.

(h)the rated effective coverage does not decrease to less than 90% of its value due to variation of antenna constant or power supply voltage.

(i)The modulation of a superfluous audible frequency must be controlled in ways that the amplitude of an audible frequency does not exceed 5% of that of the carrier wave.

(j)The configuration of a transmitting antenna system must be the one that may minimize the loss of its each part and the magnitude of standing wave generated in the feeder cable must be as low as possible.

(k)The antenna system must not generate a space wave that causes damages to the functions of the radio navigation aids.

(l)two pairs of transmitting equipment must be provided so that they can be used any time alternately.

(m)a dummy antenna system must be provided.

(n)a backup private electric generator must be provided.

(o)a monitor equipment that can determine whether or not a transmission of identification code is properly performed must be provided.

(iv)in the case of a directional radio range beacon, it must have the performance characteristics and structures prescribed below:

(a)it must radiates non-directional non-radio wave into space and concurrently radiates directional A-A radio wave that is key-operated by using a Morse code for the letter A and the other pair with the letter N alternately; provided, however, that the carrier frequency for directional radio waves must be 1,020 Hz higher than those for non-directional radio waves and its deviation must not exceed 50 Hz.

(b)in the direction including true north, the N signal must be transmitted; provided, however, that when a course bearing north, the N signal must be transmitted in the north-west direction.

(c)the A signal must be transmitted following the N signal respectively.

(d)twelve N signals and twelve A signals must be transmitted following an identification code, respectively.

(e)an identification code must be transmitted at a speed of seven words per minute, and must be repeated for two consecutive times every 30 seconds.

(f)it must have radiation characteristics that during transmitting an identification code, it can definitely identify the code within a range not exceeding a rated effective coverage (meaning a distance in which vertical electric intensity of non-directional radio waves radiated on the route from the relevant facility becomes 70 microvolts per meter during daytime; hereinafter the same applies to a directional radio beacon facility).

(g)the intensity ratio of vertical electric field of the directional radio waves and non-directional radio waves on a course must be 30% or more and not exceeding 95%.

(h)a course in which continuous sounds may be heard perfectly when those were received, and its width must be approximately 3 degrees.

(i)the variation of a course must not exceed the allowable deviations specified below:

1. if a course is oriented in the direction of the centerline of a runway, it must be zero degree.

2. if a course is oriented in the direction of an airport, etc., it must be 1 degree 30 minutes.

3. in the case a course other than that specified in 1 and 2, it must be 3 degrees.

(j)it does not create a false course if at all possible.

(k)In order to confirm that an aircraft has passed over a directional radio range beacon, a silent zone exists over the center of the facility, and it has a range from 1.5 seconds or more if it takes an aircraft flying at an altitude of 300 meters and at a speed of 250 kilometers per hour, to 5 seconds or more when it is flying at an altitude of 1.5 kilometers and at a speed of 250 kilometers per hour.

(l)a rated effective coverage must not decrease less than 90% due to the variation of antenna constant or power supply voltage.

(m)the modulation of a superfluous audible frequency must be controlled in ways that the amplitude of an audible frequency does not exceed 5% of that of the carrier wave.

(n)radiated radio waves must not contain key clicking noise whenever possible.

(o)The configuration of an antenna system must be such that in the case of radiating a directional radio wave, the variation of its antenna constant and the loss in its feeder cable are minimum possible, and, the phase and amplitude of a pair of antenna due to variation of antenna constant will remain unchanged to the highest possible extent, and also, in the case of that radiating a non-directional radio wave, the loss of each section will be minimized, and additionally, the standing wave generated in the feeder cable is suppressed to a minimum.

(p)two pairs of transmitter equipments must be provided so that they can be used any time alternately.

(q)a dummy antenna must be provided.

(r)a backup private power generator must be provided.

(s)a monitoring equipment that can determine if an identification code is transmitted or not and if a course is appropriate or not must be installed at a places on a course which is located single wavelength away from the facility in ways that it can be checked within the facility at any time during operation hours.

(v)a Z marker beacon must have the performance characteristics and structures prescribed below:

(a)it must continuously emits a reverse conical, vertically directional radio waves that are amplitude-modulated with an audible frequency.

(b)a transmitting equipment must only emit a radio wave at a frequency of 75 MHz.

(c)a radio wave must be a horizontal polarized wave which does not contain vertical polarized wave whenever possible.

(d)the axis of radial electric field profile must be vertical whenever possible.

(e)the electric field intensity must be symmetric about the axis of the radial electric field profile whenever possible.

(f)the radial electric field must be free from any region with no reception.

(g)the coverage of horizontal radiation must be designed so that, when an aircraft equipped with a Z marker beacon receiver passes a radial electric field, the lighting time of indication light of the receiver is from 10 to 15 seconds in the case of an aircraft cruising at an altitude of 300 meters and a speed of 250 kilometers per hours or from 18 to 24 seconds at an altitude of 1.5 kilometers and a speed of 250 kilometers per hour.

(h)the configuration of a transmitting antenna system may reduce the loss of each part of it and the magnitude of standing wave generated in the feeder cable is as low as possible.

(i)two pairs of transmitting equipments must be provided so that they can be used any time alternately.

(j)a dummy antenna must be provided.

(k)a backup private power generator must be provided.

(vi)a VOR must have the following performance characteristics and structures:

(a)it must, in order to provide an aircraft during flight with a magnetic bearing using the relevant facility as reference, be designed to emit radio waves carrying reference phase signals (meaning a signal of a uniform intensity in all magnetic bearings; the same applies hereinafter), variable phase signals (meaning signals whose phase constitutes a phase difference, in combination with a reference phase signal, and the difference corresponds to a magnetic bearing; the same applies hereinafter) and identification signals.

(b)radio waves must be horizontal polarization waves which do not contain vertical polarization waves whenever possible.

(c)main carrier waves must be amplitude-modulated with the modulation waves specified below:

1. a subcarrier that is frequency-modulated with a reference phase signal (in the case of a Doppler VOR, variable phase signal).

2. a variable phase signal (in the case of a Doppler VOR, a reference phase signal)

3. an identification signal

(d)the frequency of a reference phase signal and a variable phase signal must be 30 Hz and its deviation must not exceed 1%.

(e)the degree of modulation of amplitude-modulation with a subcarrier and that with variable phase signal (in the case of a Doppler VOR, a reference phase signal) must, in a space of an attack angle of 5 degree or less from the center of an antenna part, be 30% and its deviation must not exceed 2%.

(f)the frequency of a subcarrier must be 9,960 Hz and its deviation must not exceed 1%.

(g)the modulation index of the frequency-modulation with a reference phase signal (in the case of a Doppler VOR, variable phase signal) must be 15 or more but less than 17.

(h)a subcarrier must not be amplitude-modulated exceeding the degree of modulation specified below:

1. in the case of a standard VOR, the degree of modification must be 5%.

2.in the case of a Doppler VOR, it must be 40% at a location 300 meters away from the center of antenna part.

(i)the difference of a magnetic bearing provided by the facility must not exceed 2 degrees at a point approximately 4 times further than the wavelength of the main carrier from the center of antenna part (in the case of a Doppler VOR, approximately 18 times) and at a point in a space with an attack angle of 40 degrees or less from the center.

(j)the modulation frequency must be 1,020 Hz and its deviation must not exceed 50 Hz.

(k)the degree of modulation of amplitude modulation with an identification signal must not exceed 10% and close to 10% whenever possible.

(l)it must transmit an identification code composed of three international Morse code at a speed of seven words per minute, for more than three times in 30 seconds.

(m)two pairs of transmitting equipment must be provided so that they can be used any time alternately.

(n)a dummy antenna must be provided.

(o)a private electric power generator must be provided.

(p)a monitor equipment must be installed at a location approximately 4 times further than the wavelength of main carrier from the center of an antenna part (in the case of Doppler VOR, approximately 18 times) .

(q)the monitor equipment must, when any of the following situations occurs, be capable of promptly informing the control station of the relevant situation, capable of switching to a backup transmitting equipment, and also when the situation remains unchanged even after the backup transmitting equipment has been activated, must be capable of disconnecting the transmission of radio waves from a VOR.

1. when the magnetic bearing provided by a VOR varies more than 1 degree from the predetermined bearing

2. when the degree of modulation of amplitude modulation by a subcarrier or the degree of modulation of amplitude modulation by a variable phase signal (in the case of a Doppler VOR, a reference phase signal) decreases by 15% of the predetermined degree of modulation

3. when the monitoring function of a monitoring equipment is out of order

(vii)in the case of a TACAN (tactical air navigation system), it must have the performance characteristics and structures specified below:

(a)it must have functions that, in order to provide an aircraft during flight with a magnetic bearing using the facility as a reference point, emit a main reference bearing signal (meaning a signal simultaneously emitted in all magnetic directions which is used for the rough measurement; the same applies hereinafter), auxiliary reference bearing signal (meaning a signal simultaneously emitted in all directions which is used for the precision measurement of a bearing; the same applies hereinafter), main variable bearing signal (meaning a signal having a phase that varies with magnetic bearing which is used for the rough measurement of a bearing; the same applies hereinafter), and auxiliary variable bearing signal (meaning a signal having a phase that varies with magnetic bearing which is used for the precision measurement of a bearing; the same applies hereinafter), and in order to provide the aircraft with the distance from the facility, emit a response signal to a query signal emitted from an on-board TACAN system or DME antenna, and also emit an aircraft identification signal.

(b)the main reference bearing signal, auxiliary reference bearing signal, response signal, aircraft identification signal, and random pulse pairs must be a radio wave of a pulse pairs.

(c)pulses must conform to the requirements specified below:

1. A pulse rise time (meaning a time required for the amplitude of a pulse to rise from 10% of its maximum amplitude at its leading edge to 90% of the amplitude) and a pulse fall time (meaning a time required for the amplitude of a pulse to fall from 90% of its maximum amplitude at its trailing edge to 10% of the amplitude) must be 2.5 microseconds whenever possible and must not exceed 3 microseconds.

2. A pulse width (meaning a time required for the amplitude of a pulse to rise from 50% of its maximum amplitude in the leading edge to 50% of its maximum amplitude in the trailing edge) must be 3 microseconds or more and less than 4 microseconds.

3. The amplitude of a pulse, during the time when it rises from 95% of its maximum amplitude at the leading edge to 95% of the trailing edge, must be 95% or more at its maximum amplitude.

(d)A pulse interval (meaning a time required for a pulse pair to rise from 50% of its maximum amplitude at the leading edge of first pulse to 50% of its maximum amplitude at the leading edge of second pulse: the same applies hereinafter) must be 12 microseconds in channel X or 30 microseconds in channel Y, and, the deviation must not exceed 0.25 microseconds.

(e)The difference in peak power between the first and the second pulse must be less than 1 dB.

(f)the main reference bearing signal, auxiliary reference bearing signal, response signal, aircraft identification signal, and random pulse pair must be those amplitude-modulated with the main variable bearing signal and auxiliary variable bearing signal.

(g)the frequency of a main variable bearing signal must be 15 Hz and its deviation must not exceed 0.23%.

(h)the frequency of an auxiliary variable bearing signal must be 35 Hz and its deviation must not exceed 0.23%.

(i)the degree of modulation of a main variable bearing signal and of an auxiliary bearing signal must be more than 12% and less than 30%.

(j)the higher harmonics included in a main variable bearing signal and of an auxiliary variable bearing signal must not exceed 20%.

(k)when the amplitude of a main variable bearing signal is maximum, the amplitude of an auxiliary bearing signal must be maximum.

(l)the number of pulse pairs constituting a main reference bearing signal must be more than 11 and less than 13.

(m)the pulse pair interval of a main bearing signal (meaning a time required for adjacent pulse pairs, from the amplitude reaches 50% of its maximum at the leading edge of the second pulse of the former pulse pair to 50% of its maximum at the leading edge of the second pulse of the latter pulse pair; the same applies hereinafter) must be 30 microseconds, and, its deviation must not exceed 0.3 microseconds.

(n)the number of pulse pairs constituting an auxiliary reference bearing signal must be 6 or 7.

(o)the pulse pair interval of an auxiliary reference bearing signal must be 24 microseconds, and, its deviation must not exceed 0.3 microseconds.

(p)a main reference bearing signal must be emitted when the amplitude of a main variable bearing signal becomes maximum in the magnetic direction using the facility as a reference point in the direction at 90 degrees.

(q)an auxiliary reference bearing signal must be emitted when the amplitude of an auxiliary variable bearing signal becomes maximum in the magnetic direction using the facility as a reference point in the direction at 90 degrees (except when the amplitude of the main variable bearing signal becomes maximum in the relevant direction).

(r)the difference of the magnetic direction provided by the facility must not exceed 1.5 degrees.

(s)the delay in response time (meaning a time from the second pulse of a query signal is received to the second pulse of a query signal in response to the query signal is transmitted; hereafter the same applies in this item and item (ix)) must be 50 microseconds, and, its deviation must not exceed 1 microsecond; provided, however, that this does not apply to TACAN that consists part of ILS.

(t)the total number of transmissions of response signal pulse pairs and that of random pulse pairs must be 2,700 per second, and, its deviation must not exceed 90 per second.

(u)the response signal must not be transmitted while reference bearing signals, auxiliary bearing signals or aircraft identification signal are transmitted.

(v)the random pulse pair must not be transmitted while reference bearing signals, auxiliary bearing signals, response signals or aircraft identification signals are transmitted.

(w)the aircraft identification signal must be composed of a pulse pair having a pulse pair interval of more than 90 microseconds and less than 110 microseconds.

(x)The number of transmissions of aircraft identification signal pulse pair must be 2,700 per second and its deviation must not exceed 20 per second.

(y)the intervals between pulse pairs, both of which constitute an aircraft identification signal, must be as equal as possible.

(z)an aircraft identification code composed of three letters of international Morse code must be transmitted at a speed of seven words per minute, at an interval of 30 seconds.

(aa)the time to transmit an aircraft identification code must not exceed 5 seconds each time.

(bb)the identification signal must not be transmitted when reference bearing signals or auxiliary bearing signals are transmitted.

(cc)the aircraft identification code of TACAN that is used in combination with VOR or ILS must be transmitted during a period obtained by dividing 30 seconds into 4 or more periods, and the identification code of VOR or ILS that is used in combination with the TACAN must be transmitted during a period other than the periods in which the identification code of the TACAN is transmitted.

(dd)the maximum sensitivity of a receiving equipment (meaning the sensitivity of the central frequency (meaning the peak power of the query signal when the response ratio to the query signal reaches 70%; hereafter the same applies in this item and item (ix)); hereafter the same applies in this item and item (ix)) must be less than minus 125 dB using 1 Watt as a reference while receiving a query signal of 200 pulse pairs per second.

(ee)the maximum sensitivity of a receiving equipment must not vary more than 1 dB when the number of transmissions of response signal pulse pair are less than 90% of its maximum number.

(ff)the sensitivity of a receiving equipment at a frequency 100 kHz deviated from the central frequency must be within 3 dB from the maximum sensitivity.

(gg)the receiving equipment must not have response rate 70% or over to a query signal whose frequency deviates 900 kHz from the central frequency and whose peak power is less than the electric power to which 80 dB was added to the maximum sensitivity.

(hh)the sensitivity of the receiving equipment must, when 8 microseconds have elapsed since the first pulse of a query signal whose peak power had been less than the electric power to which 60 dB had been added to the maximum sensitivity, must be recovered to a range within 3 dB from the maximum sensitivity.

(ii)the spurious response of a receiving equipment must be 80 dB or more in the case of intermediate frequency response or 75 dB or more in the case of image frequency response or other spurious responses.

(jj)the reception downtime of a receiving equipment must be the time from the query signal is received to the response signal is transmitted and intervals less than 60 microseconds after a response signal is submitted (or 150 seconds if the influence of reflective waves that may be generated by topographical conditions must be avoided).

(kk)the decoder of a receiving equipment must not function in response to any pulse pair other than the pulse pair of a query signal.

(ll)the decoder of a receiving equipment must function without fail in response to the pulse pair of a query signal even if another pulse is added before or after the pulse pair or in between them.

(mm)the antenna system must transmits and receives the radio wave of a vertical polarized wave.

(nn)the TACAN antenna used in combination with VOR must be installed on a vertical line including the center of VOR antenna; provided, however, that if it is difficult to do so, in the case of TACAN which is used mainly for approach and stand-by of aircraft, the antennal must be installed at a location not exceeding 30 meters (80 meters if the VOR is of a Doppler VOR) from the center of VOR antenna part, or in the case of other types of TACAN, at a location not exceeding 600 meters from the center of VOR antenna part.

(oo)two pairs of transceivers must be provided so that they can be used alternately any time.

(pp)a dummy antenna must be provided.

(qq)a backup private electric power generator must be provided.

(rr)a monitoring system must be provided.

(ss)the monitoring system must, when any of the situations continues for more than 4 seconds, be capable of promptly informing the control station of the situation, capable of switching to a backup transceiver, and also, when the situation remains unchanged even after the backup transceiver is activated, must be capable of disconnecting the transmission of radio wave from a TACAN.

1. When the magnetic direction provided by a TACAN varies more than 1 degree from the predetermined bearing

2. When the delay in response time to the query signal, of which peak power represents the maximum sensitivity of a receiving system to which 6 dB was added, ceases to conform to the standards referred to in subitem (s)

3. when the power of an antenna drops below 50%

4. When the monitoring function of a monitoring equipment is in failure

(tt)the number of pulse pairs transmitted by a monitoring system does not exceed 120 per second.

(viii)in the case of an ILS, it must have the performance characteristics and structures specified below:

(a)An ILS must be composed of the systems specified below; provided, however, that when a TACAN or DME is installed, the installation of either one or both of the marker beacon systems specified in sub-sub-item 3., a and b may be omitted.

1. localizer

2. glide slope

3. marker beacon systems listed below:

a. outer marker

b. middle marker

c. inner marker (only when it is required.)

(b)the localizer must have the performance characteristics and structures specified below:

1. In order to provide an aircraft performing a precision approach along an ILS course with the deviation value in the horizontal direction from the course using the difference in degrees of modulation between two modulation waves, the system must transmits a radio wave that carries these modulation waves and an aircraft identification signal.

2. It must transmits a carrier that is amplitude-modulated with a wave modulated at 90 Hz, a wave modulated at 150 Hz and an aircraft identification signal.

3. The composite electric field must be such that, on the right side of the course line (meaning a virtual straight line obtained by taking the average of selected loci that are closest to the runway centerline or its extended line among the loci of points of which DDM (one-hundredth of absolute value of difference in the degree of modulation between two modulation waves; the same applies hereinafter) based on the horizontal polarized wave on an arbitrary horizontal plane of a radio wave emitted by localizer; the same applies hereinafter) which is viewed from the direction in which an aircraft approaches using the ILS, the degree of modulation of a modulated wave that is modulated with a modulation wave of 150 Hz is greater than that of 90 Hz, while on the left side of the course line, the degree of modulation of a modulated wave that is modulated with a modulation wave of 90 Hz is greater than that of 150 Hz.

4. The radio wave must not be a horizontal polarized wave, which does not contain the horizontal polarize wave exceeding the following values:

a. in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category I (meaning an ILS of which the minimum height for an aircraft to perform a precision approach by using the ILS is more than 60 meters above the horizontal plane including the approach end of runway; hereinafter the same applies in this Article (which refers to the end of a runway on the landing side for the aircraft using said ILS; hereinafter the same applies in this Article); the same applies hereinafter), the value at which the DDM-equivalent value indicated by the receiver of a localizer on board of an aircraft that is on a course line and transversely inclined by 20 degrees against the horizontal line reaches 0.016.

b. in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category II (meaning an ILS of which the minimum height for an aircraft to perform a precision approach by using the ILS is more 30 than 60 meters and less than 30 meters above the horizontal plane including the approach end of runway; the same applies hereinafter), the value at which the DDM-equivalent value indicated by the receiver of a localizer on board of an aircraft that is on a course line and transversely inclined by 20 degrees against the horizontal line becomes 0.008.

c. in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category III (meaning an ILS on which the minimum height for an aircraft to perform a precision approach by using the ILS is less than 30 meters above the horizontal plane including the approach end of runway; the same applies hereinafter), the value at which the DDM-equivalent value indicated by the receiver of a localizer on board of an aircraft that is on a course line and transversely inclined by 20 degrees against the horizontal line becomes 0.005 within a range where the value of DDM based on a horizontal polarized wave remains within 0.02 or less.

5. In the case of a localizer of ILS under Category III, the range of variation of a course line must not exceed 0.005 in terms of DDM-equivalent value within a frequency band from 0.01 Hz to 10 Hz.

6. The horizontal electric field intensity of a radio wave transmitted from a localizer must be more than 40 microvolts per meter within the rated effective coverage indicated in the following figure:

Horizontal projection (omitted)

Vertical projection (omitted)

Remarks

(i)a rated effective coverage are as marked with diagonal lines.

(ii)if it is inevitable due to terrain or it does not affect aircraft operation, the distance from C to A must be 33.3 kilometers and that from C to B must be 18.5 kilometers.

(iii)point C must be the axis of the localizer antenna

(iv)P1 is a point vertically above A, while P2 is a point vertically above B, whichever is higher at a point 600 meters away from the horizontal plane including the approach end of the runway or 300 away from the highest ground surface within the intermediate approach airspace and final approach airspace.

(v)point E must be the approach end of runway.

7. it must meet the standards prescribed in 6, and, the horizontal electric field intensity of a radio wave transmitted from a localizer must meet the following standards:

a. in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category I, the horizontal electric field intensity must be more than 90 microvolts per meter at a point in a course sector (meaning a fan-shaped area with a DDM value of 0.155 or less of a horizontal plane including a course line; the same applies hereinafter), within a distance of 18.5 kilometers from the axis of the antenna, and at a height of 60 meters or more from a horizontal plane including an approach end of the runway.

b. in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category II, it must emit more than the following microvolts:

1) 100 microvolts per meter at a point in a course sector which is 18.5 kilometers away from the axis of the antenna

2) 200 microvolts per meter at a point in a course sector at a height of 15 meters from a horizontal plane including an approach end of the runway

c. in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category III, it must emit more than the following microvolts:

1) 100 microvolts per meter at a point in a course sector which is 18.5 kilometers away from the axis of the antenna

2) 200 microvolts per meter at a point in a course sector at a height of 6 meters from a horizontal plane including an approach end of the runway

3) 100 microvolts per meter at a point on a glide path (meaning a virtual straight line obtained by taking the average of selected loci that are closest to the runway centerline or its extended line among the loci of points of which DDM based on the horizontal polarization wave of a radio wave transmitted by a glide slope on a vertical plane including a runway; the same applies hereinafter) and a point on a straight line connecting a point at a height of 6 meters above the horizontal plane including the approach end of a runway and a point vertically 4 meters above a touch-down point (meaning a point 300 meters above the runway centerline from the approach end of a runway to the end of a runway (meaning the end of a runway opposite to the approach end of a runway; the same applies in this Article); the same applies in this Article), and a point vertically 4 meters above a point on the runway centerline from the touch-down point to the center point of runway end.

8. In the case of a localizer transmitting two carrier waves, most of the electric field of one of the carrier waves must be generated within the electric field of the other carrier waves, and, in a course sector, the horizontal electric field intensity of the carrier wave of which electric field is generated inside must be 10 dB or more higher than that of the horizontal electric field intensity of the carrier wave of which electric field is generated outside.

9. The frequency deviation of modulation frequencies at 90 Hz and 150 Hz must not exceed 2.5% in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category I ,1.5% in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category II, and 1.0% in the case of a localizer of ILS Category III localizer, respectively.

10. The phase characteristics of a modulation wave at 90 Hz and a modulation wave at 150 Hz in a semi-course sector (meaning a fan-shaped area having a DDM value of 0.0775 or less of the horizontal plane including a course line; the same applies hereinafter) must be as prescribed below:

a. the voltage of modulation wave at 90 Hz and 150-Hz must turn to zero respectively in the same direction in every half cycle of their synthetic wave during a period not exceeding 370 microseconds in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category I or Category II or 186 microseconds in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category.

b. in the case of a localizer transmitting two carrier waves, the voltage of both modulation waves at 90 Hz must turn to zero in the same direction during a period not exceeding 617 microseconds in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category I or Category II, or 308 microseconds in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category III; and the voltage of both modulation waves at 150 Hz must turn to zero during the period not exceeding 370 microseconds in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category I or Category II, or 185 microseconds in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category III.

11. The degree of modulation of waves modulated at 90 Hz and at 150 Hz must be 20% on a course line, and its deviation must not exceed 2%.

12. The higher harmonics included in the waves modulated at 90 Hz and 150 Hz must not exceed 10%, and in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category III, the second higher harmonics included in the wave modulated at 90 Hz must not exceed 5%.

13. In the case of a localizer of ILS under Category III, the degree of modulation of the waves modulated at a power supply frequency, its higher harmonics and other unnecessary frequency components must not exceed 0.5%, and, the degree of modulation of the waves modulated at 90 Hz and 150 Hz and of the higher harmonics at a power supply frequency that causes a deviation from a course line by intermodulation of these higher harmonics and other unnecessary frequency components must not exceed 0.05%.

14. The DDM at each point on a course line must be the numerical value specified in the lower column of the following table according to the categories listed in the upper column of the following table:

Classification		DDM
Types	Location of a Point on a Course Line
Localizer of ILS Category I	A point located on a course line from the far end within the rated coverage from the vertical plane to the runway centerline or its extended line including ILS Point A (hereinafter simply referred to as "vertical plane" in this table and the table of item (xiv) (c)).	0.031 or less
	A point on a course line from the vertical plane including ILS Point A to the vertical plane including ILS Point B	A distance not longer than the distance obtained by adding 0.015 to the distance obtained by multiplying it by 0.0025 (in the unit of kilometer) between the vertical plane including the point and the vertical point including ILS Point B
	A point on a course line from the vertical plane including ILS Point A to the vertical plane including ILS Point C	0.015 or less
Localizer of ILS Category II	A point located on a course line within a range from the far end of a rated coverage from the vertical plane including ILS Point A	0.031 or less
	A point on a course line from the vertical plane including ILS Point A to the vertical plane including ILS Point B	A distance not longer than the distance obtained by adding 0.005 to the distance obtained by multiplying it by 0.0041 (in the unit of kilometer) between the vertical plane including the point and the vertical point including ILS Point B
	A point on a course line from the vertical plane including ILS Point B to the vertical plane including ILS reference datum point	0.005 or less
Localizer of ILS Category III	A point located on a course line within a range from the far end of a rated coverage from the vertical plane including ILS Point A	0.031 or less
	A point located on a course line from the vertical plane including ILS Point A to the vertical plane including ILS Point B	A distance not longer than the distance obtained by adding 0.005 to the distance obtained by multiplying it by 0.041 (in the unit of kilometer) between the vertical plane including the point and the vertical plain including ILS Point B
	A point located on a course line from the vertical plane including ILS Point B to the vertical plane including ILS Point D	0.005 or less
	A point located on a course line from the vertical plane including ILS Point D to the vertical plane including ILS Point E	A distance not longer than the distance obtained by adding 0.005 to the distance obtained by dividing the distance obtained by multiplying it by 0.005 (in the unit of kilometer) between the vertical plain including the point and the vertical plane including ILS Point D (in the unit of kilometer) between the vertical plane including ILS Point D and the vertical plane including E

Remarks:

(i)ILS Point A means a point on a glide path, whose projection coincides with the point 7.41 kilometers away from the approach end of a runway on the extended line of the runway centerline; the same applies hereinafter.

(ii)ILS Point B means a point on a glide path, whose projection coincides with the point 1.05 kilometers away from the approach end of a runway on the extended line of the runway centerline; the same applies hereinafter.

(iii)ILS Point C means the intersection of a glide path with a horizontal plane including the point 30 meters above the center of the approach end of a runway in a vertical direction; the same applies hereinafter.

(iv)ILS reference datum means a point on a glide path, whose projection coincides with the center of the approach end of a runway; the same applies hereinafter.

(v)ILS Point D means a point 4 meters vertically above the point 900 meters from the approach end of a runway toward the end of the runway.

(vi)ILS Point E means a point 4 meters vertically above the point 600 meters from the end of the runway toward the approach end of a runway.

15. The distance between the projection line of a course line and the center of the approach end of a runway in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category I must not exceed 10.5 meters or the distance between the course line and the point where DDM value becomes 0.015 whichever is shorter; in the case of a localize of ILS under Category II it must not exceed 7.5 meters; and in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category III it must not exceed 3.0 meters.

16. The DDM or its rate of variation of a horizontal plane including a course line must be as follows:

a. The deviation sensitivity (meaning a ratio of the changes in DDM to the changes in distance) must be 0.00145 per minute on the line of intersection of semi course sector with a vertical plane including the approach end of a runway, and its deviation in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category I or ILS under Category II must not exceed 17%; and in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category III, it must not exceed 10%.

b. until a horizontal angle from a course line to a point at which DDM reaches 0.180 (meaning an angle formed by a line connecting the point and the course line on a horizontal plane including the course line; the same applies hereinafter) the DDM must increase at a constant rate along with the increase in horizontal angle whenever possible.

c. while a horizontal angle at which DDM reaches 0.180 increases to 10 degrees, the DDM must be 0.180 or greater.

d. when a horizontal angle exceeds 10 degrees or less than35 degrees, the DDM must be 0.155 or greater.

17. The angle of a course sector must be less than 6 degrees.

18. The frequency of an aircraft identification signal must be 1,020 Hz, and, its deviation must not exceed 50 Hz.

19. The degree of modulation of an aircraft identification signal must be greater than 5% or less than 15%.

20. it must transmit an aircraft identification code composed of three international Morse code at a speed of seven words per minute, and more than 6 times per minute at equal intervals as much as possible.

21. In the case of a localizer transmitting two carrier waves, the two aircraft identification signals must have a phase characteristic that does not make it difficult to identify the aircraft identification codes.

22. If two localizers are to be installed at a runway (except for a case where the two localizers are those of ILS under Category I which transmit different frequencies, and those do not make the operations difficult when the radio waves are transmitted simultaneously), the two localizers must be equipped with an interlock system so that the two localizers do not transmit radio waves simultaneously.

23. An antenna must be installed on a line segment extended from runway centerline at the end of the runway.

24. Two pairs of transmitters must be provided so that they can be used alternately any time.

25. A dummy antenna must be provided.

26. A backup private electric power generator must be provided.

27. Monitoring equipment must be provided.

28. A monitoring equipment must, when any of the following situations occurs, be capable of informing the control station of the situation in the shortest possible time, specifically, within 10 seconds in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category I, within 5 seconds in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category II, or within 2 seconds in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category III, and concurrently, be capable of switching to a backup transmitter, and be capable of disconnecting the transmission of radio waves from the localizer when the situation remains unchanged after the backup transmitter has been activated.

a. when the location of a course line does not conform to the standards prescribed in sub-item 15; provided, however, that in the case of a localizer of ILS under Category III, when the distance between the projection line of the course line and the center point of the approach end of a runway exceeds 6.0 meters.

b. when the deviation of deviation sensitivity on the line intersection of semi-course sector and a vertical plane including the approach end of a runway exceeds 17%

c. in the case of a localizer transmitting a carrier wave, when its antenna output power decreases by more than 50% of its normal value if the localizer meets the standards prescribed in 6. through 14., or in the case of a localizer transmitting two carrier waves, when its antenna output power of either of the carrier waves decreases by more than 80% of its normal value if the localizer meets the standards prescribed in 6. through 14., by more than 50% of its normal value).

d. when the monitoring system of a monitoring equipment is out of order

(c)the glide slope indicator must have the performance characteristics and structures specified below:

1. In order to provide an aircraft performing a precision approach along the ILS course with the deviation value in the vertical direction from the course by means of the difference in degree of modulation between two modulation waves, the indicator must transmit radio waves that carry these modulation waves.

2. The indicator must transmit carrier waves that are amplitude-modulated with a wave modulated at 90 Hz, a wave modulated at 150 Hz, and must generate a synthetic electric field in the space.

2-2. In the case of a glide slope indicator transmitting two carrier waves, it must generate a synthetic electric field with one of the carrier waves, it also must transmit the other carrier wave that is amplitude-modulated with a wave modulated at 150 Hz to create an electric field in the space.

3. A synthetic electric field must, on an upper glide path, the degree of modulation with the wave modulated at 90-Hz is greater than that modulated at 150-Hz as far as the vertical angle (meaning an angle, in a vertical plane including a glide path, formed by a line connecting its point of glide path with the intersection point of the glide path and a runway; the same applies hereinafter) up to 1.75 times greater than the angle formed by the glide path and horizontal plane, while on a lower glide path, the degree of modulation with the wave modulated at 150-Hz is greater than that of the wave modulated at 90-Hz.

4. The radio wave must be a horizontal polarization wave which does not contain vertical polarization wave whenever possible.

5. In the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category III, the deviation from a glide path must not exceed 0.02 in DDM within a frequency range from 0.01 Hz to 10 Hz.

6. The angle formed by a glide path and a horizontal plane must be greater than 2 degrees and smaller than 4 degrees.

7. The angle formed by a glide path and a horizontal plane must not deviate more than 7.5% of the predetermined value in the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category I or more than 4.0% in the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category III.

8. The horizontal electric intensity of a radio wave transmitted from a glide slope indicator must be more than 400 microvolts per meter in the rated effective coverage shown in the following figure. (in the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category I, its height is limited to 30 meters or higher from the horizontal plane including the approach end of runway, or in the case of glide slope indicators of ILS under Category II or Category III, its height is limited to 15 meters or higher from the horizontal plane including the approach end of runway).

Horizontal Projection (Omitted)

Vertical Projection (Omitted)

Remarks

(i)a rated effective coverage must be as marked with diagonal lines.

(ii)point R must be the intersection point of a glide path and a runway.

(iii)the theta must be the angle formed by a glide path and a horizontal plane.

9. The frequency deviation of waves modulated at 90 Hz and 150 Hz must not exceed 2.5% in the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category I, or 1.5% in the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category II, and 1.0% in the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category III, respectively.

10. The phase characteristics of the waves modulated at 90 Hz and 150 Hz in a semi-course sector (meaning a fan-shaped area of vertical plane including a glide path having a DDM less than 0.0875) must be as prescribed below:

a. The voltage of the respective waves modulated at 90-Hz and 150-Hz must turn to zero in the same direction in every half cycle of these synthetic waves within 370 microseconds in the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category I or Category II or within 185 microseconds in the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category III.

b. In the case of a glide slope indicator transmitting two carrier waves, the voltage of the respective two waves modulated at 150-Hz must turn to zero in the same direction within 370 microseconds in the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category I or Category II, or within 185 microseconds in the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category III.

11. The degree of modulation of waves modulated at 90 Hz and 150 Hz must be 40% on a glide path, and its deviation must not exceed 2.5%.

12. The higher harmonics included in the waves modulated at 90 Hz and 150 Hz must not exceed 10%, and in the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category III, the higher harmonics included in the waves modulated at 90 Hz must not exceed 5%.

13. In the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category III, the degree of modulation of waves modulated by frequency of power supply, of its higher harmonics and of other unnecessary frequency components must not exceed 1.0%.

14. The DDM at each point on a glide path must be the numerical value listed in the lower column of the following table in accordance with the categories listed in the upper column of that table:

Classification		DDM
Types	Location of a point on a glide path
Glide slope of ILS Category I	A point located on a glide path from the limits of rated coverage from the ILS Point C.	0.035 or less
Glide slope of ILS Category II or Category III	A point located on a glide path from the limits of rated coverage from the ILS Point A.	0.035 or less
	A point located on a glide path from the ILS Point A to Point B.	The distance shorter than the distance obtained by adding 0.023 to the value obtained by multiplying the distance(in the unit of kilometer) between the vertical plane including said point and the vertical plain including ILS Point B by 0.0019
	A point located on a glide path from the ILS Point B to the ILS reference datum	0.023 or less

15. The height of ILS reference datum must be 15 meters from the axis of the approach end of runway (allowable deviation must be 3 meters upward).

16. The DDM on a vertical plane including a glide path or its deviation rate must be as specified below:

a. The point where DDM is 0.0875 must be determined within the ranges specified below:

1) In the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category I, the vertical angle must be within a range from 0.86 times to 0.93 times greater than the angle formed by a glide path and a horizontal plane (hereinafter referred to as "theta" in c) and a range from 1.07 times to 1.14 times greater than theta.

2) In the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category II, the vertical angle must be within a range from 0.86 times to 0.90 times greater than theta, and a range from 1.07 times to 1.14 times greater than theta.

3) In the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category III, the vertical angle must be within a range from 0.86 times to 0.90 times greater than theta, and a range from 1.10 times to 1.14 times greater than theta.

b. until the vertical angle increases to the point where DDM becomes 0.22 on a glide path and down below it, DDM must increase at a constant rate whenever possible against the decrease in vertical angle.

c. the vertical angle at a point down below a glide path where DDM becomes 0.22 must be more than 0.3 times greater than theta. In this case, when the vertical angle at a point where DDM becomes 0.22 is more than 0.45 times greater than theta, as for the vertical angle at that point to the vertical angle 0.45 times greater than theta, the DDM must be greater than 0.22.

17. The vertical angle at a point down below a glide path where DDM is 0.0875 must not be greater than the vertical angle obtained by multiplying the vertical angle by the following percentage after substracting the predetermined vertical angle at the point from theta:

a. in the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category I: 25 percent

b. in the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category II: 20 percent

c. in the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category III: 15 percent

18. Two pairs of transmitters must be provided so that they can be used alternately any time.

19. A dummy antenna must be provided.

20. A backup electric power generator must be provided.

21. A monitoring system must be provided.

22. Monitoring equipment must, when any of the following situations occurs, be capable of informing the control station of the situation within the shortest possible time, specifically, within 6 seconds in the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category I, or within 2 seconds in the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category II or Category III, and concurrently, be capable of switching to a backup transmitter, and be capable of disconnecting the transmission of radio waves from a glide slope indicator when the situation remains unchanged after the backup transmitter has been activated.

a. when the angle formed by a glide path and a horizontal plane changes more than 0.925 times greater than the predetermined angle or less than 1.10 times

b. at a point down below a glide path, when the vertical angle at a point where DDM is 0.0875 increases more than the value given below:

1) In the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category I, 0.0375 times greater than theta

2) In the case of a glide slope indicator of ILS under Category II or Category III, the value obtained by multiplying the numerical value which is obtained by substracting the predetermined vertical angle at the point from theta by 0.25

c. at the lower limit of the rated effective coverage of a glide path, when DDM decreases below 0.175

d. in the case of a glide slope indicator transmitting a carrier wave, when it meets the standards prescribed in 6. through 14., the antenna output power decreases below 50% of its normal value; and in the case of a glide slope indicator transmitting two carrier waves, when the antenna output power for either carrier wave decreases below 80% of its normal value (when it meets the standards prescribed in 6. through 14., the antenna output power decreases below 50% of its normal value").

e. when the monitoring system of a monitoring equipment is out of order

(d)the marker beacon must have the performance characteristics and structures specified below:

1. In order to inform an aircraft performing a precision approach along an ILS course that the aircraft has reached a location at a specific distance from a runway, it must transmit vertically directional fan-shaped radio waves amplitude-modulated with modulation waves in the upward direction.

2. Radio waves must be horizontal polarized waves which do not contain vertical polarized waves whenever possible.

3. The axis of the radial electric field must be vertical whenever possible.

4. The horizontal electric intensity must be symmetric about the axis of the radial electric field whenever possible.

5. An antenna must be installed at any of the following locations whenever possible:

a. In the case of an outer marker, at a place more than 6.5 kilometers and less than 11.1 kilometers away from the runway centerline at the approach end of runway (7.2 kilometers if possible), the place less than 75 meters away from the point on a straight line forming a right angle with the line extended from runway centerline.

b. In the case of a middle marker, at a place more than 900 meters and less than 1,200 meters away from the runway centerline at the approach end of runway, the place less than 75 meters away from the point on a straight line forming a right angle with the line extended from runway centerline.

c. In the case of an inner marker, at a place more than 75 meters and less than 450 meters away from the runway centerline at the approach end of runway, the place less than 30 meters away from the point on a straight line forming a right angle with the line extended from runway centerline.

6. The rated effective coverage (meaning a range of which horizontal electric intensity of a radio wave transmitted from the relevant facility on the glide path is higher than 1.5 millivolts per meter; hereinafter the same applies in 7.) must be as specified below:

a. in the case of an outer marker, more than 400 meters or less than 800 meters

b. in the case of a middle marker, more than 200 meters or less than 400 meters

c. in the case of an inner marker, more than 100 meters or less than 200 meters

7. The maximum horizontal electric intensity of a radio wave within the rated radiation coverage must be higher than 3.0 millivolts per meter.

8. The frequency of a modulation wave must be as specified below, and its deviation must not exceed 2.5%:

a. in the case of an outer marker, 400 Hz

b. in the case of a middle marker, 1,300 Hz

c. in the case of an inner marker, 3,000 Hz

9. The degree of modulation of modulation wave must be 95%, and its deviation must not exceed 4%.

10. The higher harmonics included in modulation waves must not exceed 15%.

11. The configuration of an aircraft identification code must be as specified below:

a. in the case of an outer marker, continuous dashes

b. in the case of a middle marker, alternate continuous dashes and dots

c. in the case of an inner marker, continuous dots

12. The speed of transmission of dashes composing an aircraft identification code is two times per second, and, its deviation must not exceed 15%.

13. The speed of transmission of dots composing an aircraft identification code is six times per second, and its deviation must not exceed 15%.

14. Two pairs of transmitters must be provided so that they can be used alternately any time.

15. A dummy antenna must be provided.

16. A backup electric power generator must be provided.

17. A monitoring equipment must be provided.

18. The monitor equipment must, when any of the following situations occurs, be capable of promptly informing the control station of the situation, be capable of switching to a backup transmitting equipment, and, when the situation remain unchanged after activation of the backup transmitting equipment has been activated, is capable of disconnecting the transmission of radio waves from a marker beacon.

a. when the degree of modulation does not meet the standards prescribed in 9

b. when the power of an antenna drops by more than 50%

c. when the monitoring system of a monitoring equipment is out of order

(ix)in the case of DME, it must have the performance characteristics and structures specified below:

(a)in order to provide an aircraft during flight with the distance information from the relevant facility, the equipment must transmits a response signal to a query signal transmitted from an on-board TACAN or DME, and also transmits an aircraft identification signal.

(b)response signal, an aircraft identification signal and random pulse pair must be a radio wave of a pulse pair.

(c)pulses must meet the requirements prescribed in item (vii), (b).

(d)the pulse interval must be 12 microseconds in the case of channel X or 30 microseconds in the case of channel Y, and, the deviation must not exceed 0.25 microseconds.

(e)the difference in peak power between the first pulse and the second must be less than1 dB.

(f)the delay in response time must be 50 microseconds, and, its deviation must not exceed 1 microsecond; provided, however, that this does not apply in the case of DME consisting part of ILS.

(g)the equipment must be capable of transmitting pulse pairs of response signals 2,700 times (allowable deviation is 90) per second.

(h)The total number of pulse pair transmissions of a response signal and random pulse pairs must be more than 700 times or less than 2,790 per second.

(i)the response signals must not be transmitted while aircraft identification signals are transmitted.

(j)the random pulse pairs must not be transmitted while response signals or aircraft identification signals are transmitted.

(k)the aircraft identification signals must be composed of pulse pairs having pulse pair intervals of more than 90 microseconds or less than 110 microseconds.

(l)the number of aircraft identification signals to be transmitted must be as specified below:

1. An aircraft identification signal composed of a single pulse pair: 1,350 (allowable deviation is 10) per second

2. An aircraft identification signal composed of a pair(s) of pulse pairs: 2,700 (allowable deviation is 20) per second

(m)the interval between a single pulse pair of aircraft identification signals specified in (l), 1. and the interval between pulse pairs of aircraft identification signals specified in (l), 2. must be the same whenever possible.

(n)the configuration, transmission speed, and number of transmissions of aircraft identification codes must meet the standards prescribed in item vii, (z).

(o)the time required to transmit an aircraft identification code must meet the standards prescribed in item vii, (aa).

(p)the aircraft identification code of DME that is used in combination with a VOR or ILS must be transmitted within a period of seconds obtained by dividing 30 seconds into 4 or more, and the aircraft identification code of a VOR or ILS that is used in combination with the DME must be transmitted within a period of seconds in which the aircraft identification code of the relevant DME is not transmitted.

(q)the receiving equipment must meet the standards prescribed in items vii, (dd) through (ll).

(r)the antenna system must transmit and receive the radio waves of vertical polarized waves.

(s)the antenna system of a DME used in combination with a VOR must be installed on a vertical line including the axis of VOR antenna; provided, however, that if it is difficult to do so, in the case of a DME that is combined with VOR and mainly used for the aircraft approaching or holding, the antenna system must be installed at a place less than 30 meters away from the axis of the VOR antenna (if the VOR is a Doppler VOR, less than 80 meters) and in the case of other types of VORs, at a place less than 600 meters away from the axis of the VOR antenna.

(t)two pairs of transceivers must be provided so that they can be used alternately any time.

(u)a dummy antenna must be provided.

(v)a backup electric power generator must be provided.

(w)a monitoring equipment must be provided.

(x)the monitoring equipment must, when any of the following situations continues for more than 4 seconds, be capable of promptly informing the control station of the situation, be capable of switching to a backup transceiver, and when the situation remains unchanged after the backup transceiver has been activated, be capable of disconnecting the transmission of radio waves from a DME.

1. When the delay in response time to the query signal, of which peak power represent the maximum sensitivity of a receiving system to which 6 dB was added, ceases to conform to the standards prescribed in subitem (f)

2. When the power of an antenna drops by more than 50%

3. When the monitoring system of a monitoring equipment is out of order

(y)the number of pulse pairs transmitted by a monitoring equipment for monitoring must not exceed 120 per second.

(2)In the case of radio navigation aids which may not be governed by the standards prescribed in the preceding paragraph due to topographical or other inevitable reasons, may be governed by the standards set forth by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism notwithstanding the standards prescribed in that paragraph.

(Request for Construction Completion Inspection)

Article 100(1)A person intending to file a request for construction completion inspection of radio navigation aids pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 42 of this Act must submit a written request for construction completion inspection of radio navigation aids providing the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name and address

(ii)name and address of radio navigation aids

(iii)construction completion date

(2)Provisions of the preceding paragraph apply mutatis mutandis to the request for construction completion inspection of alterations made to radio navigation aids, pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 42 of this Act as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 43 of this Act.

(Notification of Service Commencement Date)

Article 101(1)A person intending to submit a notice of service commencement date for radio navigation aids pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (3) of Article 42 of this Act must submit a written notice of service commencement date for radio navigation aids providing the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name and address

(ii)name and address of radio navigation aids

(iii)service commencement date

(2)Provisions of the preceding paragraph apply mutatis mutandis to the notice of service commencement date for the radio navigation aids to which alterations have been made or whose services have been suspended pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (3) of Article 42 of this Act, as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (5) of Article 44 of the Act, as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 43 and paragraph (2) of Article 45 of this Act.

(Significant Changes)

Article 102The significant changes that require permission for the radio navigation aids under the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 43 of this Act, are as follows:

(i)change in course direction

(ii)change in location of antenna system

(iii)change in structure of the antenna system

(iv)change in method or providing transmitting-receiving aids

(v)changes in the structure and circuit of transmitter-receiver (limited to cases in which the relevant change affects radio frequencies, antenna power, aircraft identification code, and electrical characteristics of radio navigation aids)

(vi)expanding transmitter-receiver and power supply facility.

(Application for Permission to Change Particulars)

Article 103(1)A person intending to apply for permission to change particulars concerning radio navigation aids pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 38 of this Act as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 43 of this Act must submit three copies of written application for permission to change particulars concerning radio navigation aids providing the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism:

(i)name and address

(ii)name and address of radio navigation aids

(iii)particulars to be changed (documents and drawings comparing the old and new particulars must be attached.)

(iv)costs of making changes

(v)scheduled construction commencement and completion dates

(vi)when a management plan changes, the management plan after the change

(vii)reasons for the change

(2)The following documents must be attached to the written application prescribed in the preceding paragraph:

(i)documents describing the costs required for the change and the methods for procuring land and objects

(ii)construction design drawings, construction specifications and budget statement

(iii)if an applicant is a judicial person or partnership, documents certifying the decision made on the change.

(Notification of Suspension or Discontinuation of Provision)

Article 104(1)A person intending to submit a notice of suspension or discontinuation of providing radio navigation aids pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 45 of this Act must submit a written notice of suspension (discontinuation) of providing radio navigation aids providing the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name and address

(ii)name and address of radio navigation aids

(iii)in the case of notice of discontinuation, the scheduled discontinuation date

(iv)in the case of notice of suspension, the scheduled suspension commencement date and suspension period

(v)reasons for suspension or discontinuation

(2)If an applicant is a judicial person or partnership, the documents certifying the decision made on the suspension or discontinuation must be attached to the written notice prescribed in the preceding paragraph.

(Request for Inspection of Aeronautical Radio Navigation Aids to Resume their Provision)

Article 105(1)A person intending to undergo an inspection to resume the provision of radio navigation aids pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (4) of Article 44 of this Act as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 45 of this Act must submit the written request for inspection to resume provision of radio navigation aids providing the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name and address

(ii)name and address of radio navigation aids

(iii)scheduled re-commencement date for provision of services

(2)If an applicant is a judicial person or partnership, the documents certifying the decision made on the re-commencement of provision of services must be attached to the written request prescribed in the preceding paragraph.

(Public Notice of Commencement of Provision of Services)

Article 106(1)Pursuant to the provisions of Article 46 of this Act, the particulars that must be publicly notified when a notice of commencement date for provision of radio navigation aids has been submitted are as follows:

(i)name and address of the establisher

(ii)category and name of radio navigation aids

(iii)location and address of radio navigation aids

(iv)carrier frequency

(v)antenna power

(vi)direction of course

(vii)aircraft identification code

(viii)operation hours

(ix)service commencement date

(x)Special instructions when using radio navigation aids

(2)The provisions of the preceding paragraph apply mutatis mutandis to the case where the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism establishes radio navigation aids.

(Public Notice of Change or Suspension)

Article 107Pursuant to the provisions of Article 46 of this Act (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of Article 55, paragraph (2), item (ii) of the Act) the particulars that must be publicly notified if the provision of radio navigation aids is suspended, resumed or discontinued are be as specified below, beyond what is set forth in items (i), (ii) and (iii) of paragraph (1) of the preceding Article:

(i)if any of the particulars that have been publicly notified, the changed particulars

(ii)in the case of a suspension, the scheduled suspension commencement date and suspension period

(iii)in the case of a re-commencement or discontinuation, the scheduled date

(Criteria for Management)

Article 108The criteria for managing radio navigation aids pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 47 of this Act, (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of Article 55, paragraph (2), item (ii) of the Act) are as specified below:

(i)the operation of the relevant aids must be constantly maintained during a regular operation hours.

(ii)the radio navigation aids must be sustained in perfect conditions by refurbishing and cleaning the aids.

(iii)the prohibited acts prescribed in Article 53 of this Act must be displayed so that the public may recognize it easily.

(iv)if the functions of the radio navigation aids may be impaired by building structures, plants or other objects, necessary measures such as removal of the relevant objects must be taken.

(v)the system to communicate with the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism must be established, which will be required when the operation of radio navigation aids is suspended, or rated effective coverage and course are changed, or aircraft identification code may not be transmitted or the functions of the radio navigation aids are impaired due to unavoidable reasons and when the operation or functions of the radio navigation aids are recovered.

(vi)when the operation of radio navigation aids is affected by natural disasters or other accidents, efforts must be made immediately to recover the operation and take appropriate measures to prevent disruption in aviation, such as continuing the operation as much as possible.

(vii)when refurbishment or construction work is implemented for radio navigation aids, appropriate measures must be taken so that air navigation will not be restricted.

(viii)in a place where radio navigation aids are located, one-thirds of a number of parts composing circuit of transmitter-receiver currently used must be secured as spare parts.

(ix)the administrator of radio navigation aids must maintain a daily activity log at the place of radio navigation aids and keep it for one year to record the matters listed below:

(a)results of monitoring using a monitoring equipment (at least once a day) and the date and time of recording

(b)if the operation of the aids has been suspended or other incident occurred, the date and time of the incident, cause(s) and measures taken for it

(c)particulars notified to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism and the date and time of the notification

(d)other particulars used as reference

(Notification of Service Charges to Use Aeronautical Radio Navigation Aids)

Article 109(1)A person intending to submit a notification of services charges or change in service charges to use radio navigation aids provided for public use pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 54 of the Act must submit a written notice of service charges (change in service charges) to use radio navigation aids providing the particulars specified below to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism:

(i)name and address

(ii)name and address of radio navigation aids

(iii)The type and amount of service charges to be set or changed (in the case of a notice of change, the comparison between the old and new service charges must be clearly indicated).

(iv)scheduled implementation date

(v)in the case of a notice of change, reasons for the change

(2)The written notice prescribed in the preceding paragraph must be accompanied by documents describing the basis for calculation of the charges.

(Request for Approval for Successor in Title of the Radio Navigation Aids Establisher)

Article 110(1)A person intending to obtain approval for successor in title of the radio navigation aids establisher pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (1) of Article 55 of this Act must submit a written application for permission of the successor in title of radio navigation aids establisher describing the particulars specified below to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name and address of the successor

(ii)name and address of the inheritee

(iii)location and address of radio navigation aids

(iv)requirements to be a successor

(v)date on which the applicant intends to succeed the aids

(vi)reasons for the succession

(2)The documents and drawings listed below must be attached to the written application prescribed in the preceding paragraph:

(i)documents certifying the conditions of succession

(ii)in the case of a judicial person or partnership, documents certifying the decision made on the succession

(iii)documents certifying that the successor possesses the capabilities sufficient enough to administrate the radio navigation aids

(Notification of Successor in Title of Radio Navigation Aids Establisher, by Inheritance)

Article 111(1)A person intending to submit the notification of successor in title of radio navigation aids establisher pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (4) of Article 55 of this Act must submit a written notice of successor in title of radio navigation aids establisher providing the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)name and address of the notifier

(ii)name and address of decedent and the relationship between the heir and the decedent

(iii)location and address of radio navigation aids

(iv)commencement date for inheritance

(2)The documents specified below must be attached to the written notice prescribed in the preceding paragraph:

(i)documents certifying the relationships between the notifier and the decedent

(ii)if there is an heir(s) other than the notifier, documents describing the name and address of the person(s) and the written consent from the relevant person(s)

Article 112Deleted

Section 3 Aeronautical Lighting

(Types of Aeronautical Beacons)

Article 113The types of aeronautical beacons prescribed in item (i) of Article 3 are the three types specified below:

(i)airway beacons (lights installed to indicate a point on an air route to an aircraft during flight)

(ii)landmark beacons (lights installed to indicate a specific point to an aircraft during flight)

(iii)hazard beacons (lights installed to indicate an area that may be particularly dangerous for an aircraft during flight)

(Aerodrome Lighting)

Article 114The types of aerodrome lighting prescribed in item (ii) of Article 4 are as specified below:

(i)aerodrome beacon (a beacon installed in an airport and its surrounding area other than identification beacons which indicates the location of airport, etc. to an aircraft during flight)

(ii)identification beacon (a beacon that blinks in Morse code to indicate the location of an airport, etc. to the aircraft during flight)

(iii)approach lighting system (arrays of lights installed in an approach area and landing strip to indicate the location of final approach path to an aircraft intending to land)

(iv)precision approach path indicator (a light installed near a runway threshold in the case of an onshore airport or near a landing area in the case of an onshore heliport which indicates an aircraft intending to land whether its approach slope is appropriate or not)

(v)circling guidance lights (arrays of lights installed on the outside of a runway that project a beam of light outward and upward of the runway to indicate the location of runway to an aircraft while performing a circling approach)

(vi)approach light beacon (a light other than an approach lighting system installed to indicate key points within an approach area to an aircraft intending to land)

(vii)approach guidance lights (arrays of lights installed to indicate a flight path to an aircraft that has taken off, or to indicate the approach path to an aircraft intending to land until it reaches the final approach path)

(viii)runway edge lights (arrays of lights installed on both sides of a runway to indicate the runway to an aircraft intending to take off or land)

(ix)runway threshold lights (arrays of lights installed at both ends of a runway to indicate the ends of a runway, other than emergency runway edge lights, to an aircraft intending to take off or land)

(x)wing bar lights (arrays of lights installed near the runway threshold lights to assist their function)

(xi)runway threshold identification lights (arrays of lights, other than threshold wing bar lights, installed near the both ends of a runway to indicate the ends of a runway to an aircraft intending to land)

(xii)runway centerline lights (arrays of lights installed on the centerline of a runway to indicate it to an aircraft intending to take off or land)

(xiii)runway touchdown zone lights (arrays of lights installed in the touch-down zone to indicate it to an aircraft intending to land)

(xiv)runway distance marker lights (arrays of lights installed to indicate the distance to the end of a runway ahead to an aircraft taxiing on a runway)

(xv)overrun area edge lights (arrays of lights installed near an overrun zone to indicate it to an aircraft intending to take off or land)

(xvi)take-off aiming lights (arrays of lights installed as a landmark to indicate a direction to take off to an aircraft intending to take off)

(xvii)emergency runway lights (transportable lights used temporarily when runway edge lights and runway threshold lights are out of order)

(xviii)channel lights (arrays of lights installed on either side or both sides of a landing strip of a water airport, etc., to indicate the landing strip)

(xix)channel threshold lights (arrays of lights installed on both ends of a landing strip of a water airport, etc. to indicate the ends)

(xx)taxiway edge lights (arrays of lights installed to indicate the edges of a taxiway (excluding a turning area (meaning an area located adjacent to a runway that allows an aircraft to turn directions near the end of a runway; the same applies hereinafter); the same applies in this Section;) and the edges of an apron to aircraft taxiing on the ground)

(xxi)taxiway centerline lights (arrays of lights installed along the centerline of a taxiway or ramp from or to a runway or an apron to indicate the centerline or ramp to an aircraft taxiing on the ground)

(xxi)-2stop bar lights (arrays of lights installed to indicate whether or not an aircraft taxing on the ground needs to make a temporary stop and where to make a temporary stop)

(xxi)-3runway guard lights (arrays of lights installed to indicate where to make a temporary stop to an aircraft taxiing on the ground before entering a runway)

(xxi)-4intermediate holding position lights (arrays of lights other than stop bar lights and runway guard lights installed to indicate where to make a temporary stop to an aircraft taxiing on the ground)

(xxii)taxiway guidance signs (arrays of lights installed to indicate he destination, path, branch point, etc. to an aircraft taxiing on the ground)

(xxii)-2turning point identificator lights (arrays of lights installed near a turning area to indicate the turning radius in that area to an aircraft taxiing on the ground)

(xxii)-3visual docking guidance system (arrays of lights installed to indicate the deviation from the taxiing path to a docking position in an apron and the distance to the docking position to an aircraft taxiing on the ground )

(xxiii)taxi-channel lights (arrays of lights placed to indicate a taxi channel to an aircraft)

(xxiv)landing direction indicator lights (arrays of lights installed to indicate T day shapes or tetrahedron day shapes to indicate the landing direction to an aircraft intending to land)

(xxv)wind direction indicator lights (arrays of lights installed to indicate wind direction to an aircraft)

(xxvi)direction signal lights (arrays of lights installed to send signals necessary for the safety in air traffic control to an aircraft, etc.)

(xxvii)unserviceability lights (arrays of lights installed to indicate a not-in-service area to an aircraft)

(xxviii)landing area floodlights (arrays of lights installed to illuminate a landing area)

(xxix)boundary lights (arrays of lights installed in an area surrounding the area where an aircraft may land and take off so as to indicate the relevant area)

(xxx)water boundary lights (arrays of lights installed around a water area where an aircraft may land and take off so as to indicate the relevant area to an aircraft intending to take off or land)

(xxxi)range lights (arrays of lights installed in parallel with boundary lights in order to indicate a direction suitable for landing and take off to an aircraft intending to take off or land)

(xxxii)water range lights (arrays of lights having distinctive colors to be placed in parallel with water boundary lights in order to indicate a direction suitable for landing and take off to an aircraft intending to take off or land)

(Application for Permission to Install Aeronautical Lights)

Article 115(1)A person intending to apply for permission to install aeronautical lighting pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 38 must submit three copies of written application for permission to install aeronautical lighting providing the following particulars to the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

(i)purpose of installation

(ii)name and address

(iii)type and name of aeronautical lighting

(iv)location and address of aeronautical lighting

(v)name and address of owner of the site where aeronautical lighting is to be installed

(vi)outline of the facilities

(vii)management plan

(viii)costs required for installation and management

(ix)scheduled construction commencement and completion dates

(2)the documents referred to in items (i) through (iii) and items (viii) through (xi) of paragraph (2) of Article 76 must be attached to the written application prescribed in the preceding paragraph.

Article 116The installation criteria, such as the location, structure, etc. of aeronautical beacons prescribed in paragraph (1) of Article 39 of the Act (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 43) are as specified below:

(i)airway beacon

(a)an airway beacon must be installed at a location in the proximity of the centerline of an airway so that it is visible from all the directions above the horizontal plane including the light source center.

(b)lights must be alternate red and white flashing lights.

(c)I the number of flashes per minute must be from 12 to 20.

(d)the effective intensity of white light must be higher than 150,000, and the effective intensity of red light must be higher than 23,000 candela

(ii)landmark beacons

(a)beacons emitting flashing lights

1. the color of beacon light must be white.

2. The number of flashes per minute must be from 12 to 100.

3. The effective intensity of light must be higher than 8,000 candela.

(b)Beacons emitting beacon signal in Morse code

1. The signal must be sent in international Morse code.

2. it must transmit signals at a speed of 6 to 8 words per minute, and the duration of each dot must be from 0.15 to 1.0 seconds.

3. The color of beacon light must be white or red if it is installed in parallel with an airway beacon, or white in other cases.

4. The maximum intensity of light must be higher than 2,000 candela.

5. it must emit lights to all directions to an angles of 45 degrees from the horizontal plane.

(iii)hazard beacons

(a)a hazard beacon must be installed at a place where an obstacle which is not appropriate to be made visible by using obstacle lights is located, or the place where it is particularly dangerous for an aircraft while in flight.

(b)the lights must be a flashing red lights.

(c)I the number of flashes per minute must be from 20 to 60.

(d)The effective intensity of light must be higher than 3,000 candela.

(e)I a hazard beacon must emit lights in all directions from 5 degrees below the horizontal plane in an upward direction.

(Criteria to Install Aerodrome Lighting)

Article 117(1)The installation criteria, such as the location, structure, etc. of aeronautical lighting prescribed in paragraph (1) of Article 39 of the Act (including as applied mutatis mutandis pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (2) of Article 43) are as prescribed below:

(i)aerodrome lighting at an onshore airport and an onshore heliport that is used for the instrument landing system that allow a nighttime landing or precision approach must be installed as prescribed in Tables 1, 2 and 3 according to the classes of airports and runways.

Table 1. Aerodrome Lighting at Onshore Airports

Aerodrome beacon	o
Identification beacon	x
Taxiway edge lights	o
Taxiway centerline lights	x
Stop bar lights	x
Runway guard lights	x
Intermediate holding position lights	x
Taxiway guidance signs	x
Turning point identification lights	x
Visual docking guidance system	x
Landing direction indicator lights	x
Wind direction indicator lights	o
Direction signaling lights	x
Unserviceability lights	x

Legend ○: lights that must be installed

Legend X: Arrays of lights to be installed when it is obviously necessary for an aircraft to take off or land safely from the viewpoint of geographical conditions of the airport, etc.

Table 2. Aerodrome Lighting at Onshore Airports

	Runways for instrument landing by precision approach		Runway for nighttime landing
	Runway for Category I precision approach	Runways for Category II precision approach and Category III precision approach
Approach lighting systems	o	o	x
Precision approach path indicator	o	o	x
Circling guidance lights	x	x	x
Approach light beacon	x	x	x
Approach guidance lights	x	x	x
Runway edge lights	o	o	o
Runway threshold lights	o	o	o
Wing bar lights	x	x	x
Runway threshold identification lights	x	x	x
Runway centerline lights	x	o	x
Runway Touchdown zone light	x	o	x
Runway distance marker lights	x	x	x
Overrun area edge lights	x	x	x
Take-off aiming lights	x	x	x
Emergency runway lights	x	x	x

Remarks:

(i)Legend ○:Lights that must be Installed

Legend X: Arrays of lights that must be installed when it is obviously necessary for an aircraft to take off or land safely from the viewpoint of geographical conditions of the airport, etc.

(ii)Category I precision approach means precision approach when the minimum descent altitude (meaning the minimum altitude from a horizontal plane comprising the approach end of runway (meaning the runway threshold on the near side as seen from an aircraft intending to land; the same applies hereinafter) attainable by instrumental flight; the same applies hereinafter) is 60 meters or more, and the runway visual range (meaning the maximum distance in which a runway markings, runway edge light or runway centerline can be visually recognized from an aircraft on a runway centerline; the same applies hereinafter) is 550 meters or more, or the visibility range is 800 meters or more; the same applies hereinafter.

(iii)Category II precision approach means precision approach when the minimum descent altitude is more than 30 meters and less than 60 meters, and the runway visual range is 350 meters or more; the same applies hereinafter.

(iv)Category III precision approach means precision approach when the minimum descent altitude is less than 30 meters or has not yet been determined, and the runway visual range is more than 350 meters; the same applies hereinafter.

Table 3. Aerodrome Lighting at Onshore Heliports

Aerodrome beacon	x
Identification beacon	x
Precision approach path indicator	x
Taxiway edge lights	x
Wind direction indicator lights	o
Direction signaling lights	x
Unserviceability lights	x
Landing area flood lights	x
Boundary lights	o
Range lights	x

Legend

Legend ○: Light that must be Installed

x: arrays of lights that must be installed when it is obviously necessary for an aircraft to take off or land safely from the viewpoint of geographical conditions of the airport, etc.

(i)-2as to aerodrome lighting of onshore airports, etc. other than those used for nighttime landing or instrument landing of an aircraft performing a precision approach, when it is obviously necessary for aircraft to land safely from the viewpoint of geographical conditions, etc. of the airport, etc., a precision approach path indicator system and runway threshold identification lights must be installed.

(ii)the aerodrome lighting of water airports, etc. and heliports must be installed as prescribed in the following table:

	Airport, etc., comprising a large water landing strip	Other airports, etc.
Aerodrome beacon	o	o
Identification beacon	x	x
Channel lights		o
Channel threshold lights		o
Taxi channel lights		x
Landing direction indicator lights	x	x
Wind direction indicator lights	o	o
Direction signaling lights	x	x
Unserviceability lights	x	x
Water boundary lights	o
Water range lights	o

(iii)aerodrome lighting must be located or have the performance characteristics and structure, etc. specifically designed, for the respective light types as listed below:

(a)aerodrome beacon

1. The aerodrome beacon must be installed in a location in an airport or area surrounding it where a beam of light does not prevent the operation of an aircraft taking off or landing and the control tower so that it is visible from all the directions above the horizontal plane including the light center.

2. If it is difficult to install the beacon in the location prescribed in sub-item 1, an identification beacon must be installed in the location and the beacon must be installed in another suitable place.

3. The lights must be alternate white and green flashing lights or white flashing lights in the case of an offshore airport, while in the case of a water airport, it must be alternate white and yellow flashing lights or white flashing lights, and in the case of a heliport, it must be white flashing lights.

4. The flashing lights must be emitted as specified below:

a. in the case of an onshore airport, etc. or water airport, etc., the number of flashes per minute must be from 20 to 30.

b. in the case of a heliport, flashing lights for more than 0.5 milliseconds and less than 2 milliseconds must be emitted 4 times at equal intervals in 0.8 second and discontinued for 1.2 seconds.

5. The effective intensity of lights must be higher than 2,000 candela in the case of an onshore airport, etc. or water airport, etc. and higher than 2,500 candela in the case of a heliport.

(b)identification beacon

1. an identification beacon to be installed under subitem (a) 2, or if another airport is located adjacent to the relevant airport, etc., it must be installed in the location prescribed in sub-tem (a) 1 in order to verify the identity of the relevant airport, etc.

2. The color of the lights must be green for an offshore airport, etc. and yellow for a water airport, etc.

3. The lights of beacon must have the performance characteristics specified in item (ii) b of Article 116 (excluding sub-sub-item 3).

(c)approach lighting system

1. An approach lighting system must be either a precision approach lighting system or simple approach lighting system; provided, however, that, in the case of an approach lighting system at a runway for an aircraft performing a precision approach using the instrument landing system, the precision approach lighting system must be installed.

2. Precision Approach Lighting System

a. the lighting system must be installed in the location indicated in the following Figure A or B; provided, however that in the cases of the lights at the runways under Category II and III used for precision approach, the lighting system must be installed in the location indicated in Figure C, which is within 300 meters away from runway thresholds.

Figure A (Omitted)

Figure B (Omitted)

Figure C (Omitted)

Remarks:

(i)approach center line means an array of light units, each consisting of a single or two light units or barrette (meaning an array of more than 3 light units, which are visible from an aircraft as an array of light units closely installed side by side; the same applies hereinafter), positioned on the line extended from runway centerline; the same applies hereinafter.

(ii)a side row barrette means a row of barrettes symmetrically arranged along both sides of an approach centerline 270 meters away from the runway thresholds; the same applies hereinafter.

(iii)a crossbar means an array of light units (excluding the approach centerline and side row barrettes) arranged on a straight line perpendicular to the line extended from runway centerline at a location within a specific distance from runway threshold; the same applies hereinafter.

b. besides the light units prescribed in a, flash lights may be installed in addition to the light units prescribed in a that are installed along the line extended from runway centerline, from 60 meters away from the runway thresholds to more than 420 meters or less than 900 away from the runway thresholds.

c. the lights at the approach centerline and crossbars prescribed in a must be variable, white lights, while side row barrettes must be constant, red lights, and the lights prescribed in b, must be flashing white lights.

d. in the case prescribed in a, the beam of light from those used for precision approach must be visible from an aircraft intending to land at least within the range listed in the right-hand side column of the following table according to the respective categories given in the left-hand side column in that table, and the cross-section surface of light pillar in the vertical plane perpendicular to the line extended from runway centerline must be oval.

Classification		Range of a Beam of Light
Light composition	Light unit position
Approach centerline and crossbar	A section within 315 meters away from the runway threshold	In azimuth angles, a range comprising the light source center, and 10 degrees each leftward and rightward from a vertical plane comprising the runway centerline or from a vertical plane parallel to the runway centerline, and another range of 11 degrees upward from a horizontal plane comprising the light source center
	A section between 315 meters and 475 meters from the runway threshold	In azimuth angles, a range comprising the light source center, and 10 degrees each leftward and rightward from a vertical plane comprising the runway centerline or from a vertical plane parallel to the runway centerline, and another range of 0.5 to 11.5 degrees upward from a horizontal plane comprising the light source center
	A section between 475 meters and 640 meters from the runway threshold	In azimuth angles, a range comprising the light source center, and 10 degrees each leftward and rightward from a vertical plane comprising the runway centerline or from a vertical plane parallel to the runway centerline, and another range of 1.5 to 12.5 degrees upward from a horizontal plane comprising the light source center
	A section between 640 meters and 900 meters from the runway threshold	In azimuth angles, a range comprising the light source center, and 10 degrees each leftward and rightward from a vertical plane comprising the runway centerline or from a vertical plane parallel to the runway centerline (in the case of a crossbar in a section more than 22.5 meters away from the extended line of runway centerline, a range of 12 degrees or less toward the runway centerline and 8 degrees or less toward the other side), and another range of 2.5 to 13.5 degrees upward from a horizontal plane comprising the light source center
Side row barrette	A section within 115 meters from the runway threshold	In azimuth angles, a range comprising the light source center, and 9 degrees from a vertical plane parallel to the runway centerline toward the runway centerline and 5 degrees toward the other side, and another range of 0.5 to 10.5 degrees upward from a horizontal plane comprising the light source center
	A section between 115 meters and 215 meters from runway threshold	In azimuth angles, a range comprising the light source center, and 9 degrees from a vertical plane parallel toward the runway centerline and 5 degrees toward the other side, and another range of 1 to 11 degrees upward from a horizontal plane comprising the light source center
	A section between 215 meters and 270 meters from the runway threshold	In azimuth angles, a range comprising the light source center, and 9 degrees from a vertical plane parallel to the runway centerline toward the runway centerline and 5 degrees toward the other side, and another range of 1.5 to 11.5 degrees upward from a horizontal plane comprising the light source center

e. the intensity of beam of light prescribed in a must be higher than 20,000 candela in the case of an approach centerline for precision approach, higher than 5,000 candela in the case of a side row barrette, or higher than 2,000 candela in the case of others, and the effective intensity of the lights prescribed in b must be higher than 5,000 candela.

f. the light distribution must not be too bright for an aircraft.

g. A light unit, in the case of an embedded type, must be designed to support the load of aircraft wheels passing on it and it will not affect the landing and taking off of an aircraft, and in the case of other types, when an aircraft runs into it, it will not cause damages to the light unit and it will not affect the functions of other light units.

h. flashing lights must be emitted in a sequential order from an approaching end toward the runway threshold and the number of flashes must be 2 times per second.

i. a control unit that can promptly control the light intensity (hereafter referred to as control unit) must be installed.

j. a system that can monitor the operation of flashing lights and, if any trouble occurs while in operation, can inform the trouble to a control station (hereafter referred to as a "monitoring system") must be installed.

k. a backup power-supply system must be provided.

3. Simple Approach Lighting System

a. The light unit must be installed as prescribed below:

i. a light unit must be installed at each location between the runway threshold and the locations more than 420 meters and less than 900 meters away from the line extended from a runway centerline, which is 60 meters apart from others.

ii. the light unit must be installed at the fifth point from the runway threshold among the points prescribed in i on the 30 meter-long straight line that crosses the line extended from a runway centerline (hereinafter referred to as "orthogonal cross point" in ii and iii), on a 4-meter straight line whose center matches the orthogonal cross point, 2 or 4 units are arranged in the positions in a section of more than 4.5 meters or less than 6 meters farther away from the orthogonal cross point and symmetrically against the line extended from runway centerline with approximately equal spacing of more than 0.9 meters or less than 3.6 meters.

iii. two or four light units may be installed on the 4-meter straight line with its center matching the the orthogonal cross point and intersecting the line extended from runway centerline at the point prescribed in i (excluding the orthogonal cross point) symmetrically against the centerline at equal intervals provided, however that the number of the light units must be the same as that of the 4-meter section of the straight line with its center matching the orthogonal cross point on the 30-meter long straight line that crosses the line extended from a runway centerline.

b. the lights must be constant red lights, yellow lights, white lights or variable white lights.

c. the light intensity toward an approaching aircraft must be higher than 500 candela.

d. the light distribution must not be too bright for an aircraft.

e. a light unit, in the case of an embedded type, must be designed to support the load of aircraft wheels passing on it and it will not affect the landing and taking off of an aircraft, and in the case of other types, when an aircraft runs into it, it will not cause damages to the aircraft and it will not affect the functions of other light units.

f. a control system must be installed.

g. a monitoring system must be installed.

h. a backup power supply system must be provided.

(d)precision approach path indicator

1. the light unit must conform to the installation criteria specified below:

a. in the case of an offshore airport, etc. of which landing strip falls under either of the classes A through F, the installation criteria of PAPI lights.

b. in the case of an offshore airport, etc. of which landing strip falls under either of the classes G through J, either the installation criteria of PAPI Lights or APAPI Lights.

c. in the case of an offshore heliport, either of the installation criteria of l PAPI Lights, the installation criteria of light units pursuant to APAPI Lights, or the installation criteria of HPAPI Lights.

2. Installation Criteria of PAPI Lights

a. in the location indicated in Figure 1, 4 light units must be installed on the left side when seen from an aircraft; provided, however, that in the case of an offshore airport, etc., when it is obviously necessary, such as when no approach lighting system is installed in the relevant airport, 8 light units must be installed in the location indicated in Figure 2 so that they are symmetrical positioned against the runway centerline.

Figure 1 (omitted)

Figure 2 (omitted)

b. each light unit must emit a beam of white light or variable white light from its upper layer and red light from its lower layer toward the direction of an approaching aircraft at an angle indicated in Figure 2.

Figure 3 (omitted)

Remark: The angles "a" through angle "d" must be the angle formed by the boundary plane of the upper and lower layers of a beam of light from light units A through D and the horizontal plane.

c. The intensity of a beam of light from each light unit must be, within a cone comprising a boundary plane between the upper and lower layers of the beam of light and the light source center and an axis formed by a cross-line of a vertical plane parallel to the runway centerline and the light source center as the apex with apical angle against the light source of 4 degrees, the lower layer must be higher than 15,000 candela and the upper layer must be more than 2 times and less than 6.5 times than the intensity of the lower layer; and within a space corresponding to the locus in the case of a cone with said cross-line as an axis and the apex with an apical angle of 7 degrees is allowed to rotate around the apex for 4.5 degrees toward left and right along the boundary plane between the upper and lower layers of the anode light, the lower layer must be 4,000 candela or more and the upper layer must be 2 times to 6.5 times of the intensity of the lower layer.

d. the light distribution must not be too bright for an aircraft.

e. the light unit must not cause damage to an aircraft when the aircraft runs into it, and will not affect the functions of other light units.

f. a control system must be installed.

g. in the case of an onshore airport, etc., a monitoring system must be installed.

h. in the case of an onshore airport, etc., a backup power-supply system must be provided.

3. Installation Criteria of APAPI Lights

a. in the location indicated in Figure 4, 2 light units must be installed on the left side as seen from an aircraft. In the case of an offshore airport, etc.,; provided, however, that when an approach lighting system is deemed necessary, for instance, when no approach lighting system is installed in the relevant airport, 4 light units must be installed in the location indicated in Figure 5 so that they are positioned symmetrical about the runway centerline.

Figure 4 (omitted)

Figure 5 (omitted)

b. each light unit must emit a beam of white light or variable white light from its upper layer and of red light from its lower layer toward the direction of an approaching aircraft at an angle indicated in Figure 6.

Figure 6 (omitted)

Remark: Angle "e" and angle "f" must be the angle formed by the boundary plane of upper and lower layers of the beam of light from light unit E and unit F and the horizontal plane, respectively.

c. The intensity of a beam of light from each light unit must be, within a cone comprising a boundary plane between the upper and lower layers of the beam of light and the light source center and an axis formed by a cross-line of a vertical plane parallel to the runway centerline and the light source center as the apex with apical angle against the light source of 4 degrees, the lower layer must be higher than 5,000 candela and the upper layer must be 2 times to 6.5 times higher than the intensity of the lower layer; and within a space corresponding to the locus in the case of a cone with the cross-line as an axis and the apex with an apical angle of 7 degrees is allowed to rotate around the apex for 4.5 degrees toward left and right along the boundary plane between the upper and lower layers of the beam of light, the lower layer must be higher than 1,500 candela and the upper layer must be 2 times to 6.5 times higher than the intensity of lower layer.

d. the relevant units must conform to the standards listed in 2, d and e.

e. in the case of an onshore airport, the relevant units must conform to the standards listed in 2, g and h.

4. Installation Criteria of HAPI Lights

b. the light unit must be installed in the place peripheral to a landing area in ways that it will not become an obstacle to an aircraft during flight.

b. the light unit must emits a blinking green light, a constant green light and a constant red light and blinking red light toward the direction of an approaching aircraft at an angle indicated in Figure 7.

Figure 7 (omitted)

c. the number of blinks per minute must be 120 or more.

d. the maximum light intensity of a constant light and a blinking light must be, in the azimuth angles, a range within 3 degrees each leftward and rightward from a vertical plane comprising the light source center and take-off or landing path, or a vertical plane parallel to the path, and a range within 2 degrees upward and downward from the boundary plane between green and red, the intensity being higher than 9,000 candela and in the azimuth angles, a range within 15 degrees each leftward and rightward from a vertical plane comprising the light source center and take-off or landing path, or a vertical plane parallel to the path, and a range within 10 degrees upward and downward from the boundary plane between green and red, the intensity is higher than 375 candela, and, the cross-section of the beam of light in the plane perpendicularly intersecting the crossing line of a vertical plane comprising the take-off or landing path or a vertical plane parallel to the path and the boundary plane between green and red must be oval.

e. the relevant units must conform to the standards listed in 2, e and f.

(e)circling guidance lights

1. the light units must be installed in a place less than 300 meters at almost equal intervals on a straight line parallel to the outer runway centerline of the array of runway edge lights where circling approaches are performed.

2. Lights must be constant white lights, variable white lights, or constant yellow lights.

3. The maximum intensity of lights in the direction of an aircraft circling path must be higher than 2,000 candela.

4. the light unit must not cause damage to an aircraft when the aircraft runs into it.

(f)Approach Light Beacon

1. the light unit must be installed at the 600-meter point and at the 900-meter point from the runway threshold on the line extended from a runway centerline; provided, however, that if an approach lighting system is not installed, the light unit must also be installed at the 300-meter point from the runway threshold on line extended from a runway centerline.

2. Lights must be flashing white lights.

3. The number of flashes per minute must be 60.

4. The light distribution must not be too bright for an aircraft.

(g)Approach Guidance Lights

1. Lights must be flashing or constant white lights or yellow lights.

2. The number of flashes must be 2 per second.

3. The effective intensity of flashing lights must be higher than 5,000 candela, and in the case of a constant light, higher than 10,000 candela.

(h)Runway Edge Lights

1. In the case of the lights pertaining to instrument landing runway, high intensity runway edge lights must be employed, while in the case of others, low intensity runway edge lights must be employed.

2. High Intensity Runway Edge Lights

a. the light units must be installed on two straight lines arranged on both sides of a runway or further outside by 3 meters in parallel with the runway centerline at equal intervals of 60 meters or less and symmetrical about the runway centerline whenever possible.

b. the lights must be constant lights that are variable white lights; provided, however, that if the light units are installed within a range of one-third of the length of the runway or 600 meters away from the runway threshold ahead whichever is shorter (meaning the runway threshold ahead as seen from an aircraft intending to land; the same applies hereinafter), lights must be yellow lights.

c. the beam of light from runway edge lights must be visible from an aircraft intending to land within the minimum range listed in the right-hand side column of the following table corresponding to the intervals between the runway edge lights given in the left-hand side column of the table, and in the case of the cross-section of the beam of light on the vertical plane perpendicularly intersecting the line extended from an array of runway edge lights, the lights must be visible from all the angles at least up to 15 degrees from the horizontal plane comprising the light source center and all the bearing directions.

Intervals Between an Array of Runway Edge Lights	Range of a Beam of Light
Over 60 meters	In azimuth angles, a range of 11 degrees from a vertical plane comprising an array of runway edge lights toward the runway centerline, another range of 2 degrees toward the opposite side, and a range of 7 degrees upward from a horizontal plane comprising the light source
Shorter than 60 meters	In azimuth angles, a range of 9 degrees from a vertical plane comprising an array of runway edge lights toward the runway centerline, another range of 2 degrees toward the opposite side, and a range of 7 degrees upward from a horizontal plane comprising the light source

d. The intensity of a beam of light must be higher than 10,000 candela or in the case of that for precision approach, and in other cases, it must be higher than 1,000 candela; provided, however, that in the case of yellow lights, the intensity must be higher than 40%.

e. the light distribution must not be too bright for an aircraft.

f. a light unit, in the case of an embedded type, must be designed to support the load of aircraft wheels passing on it and will not prevent the landing and taking off of an aircraft, and in the case of other types, a light unit must not cause damage to an aircraft when the aircraft runs into it, and will not affect the functions of other light units.

g. the height of a light unit must not exceed 60 centimeters above the ground surface.

h. a control system must be installed.

i. a monitoring system must be installed.

j. a backup power-supply system must be provided.

3. Low Intensity Runway Edge Lights

a. the light units must be installed on two straight lines arranged on both sides of a runway or 3 meters outside of it in parallel with the runway centerline at equal intervals of 100 meters or less and symmetrical about the runway centerline.

b. the light must be constant white light or variable white lights and visible from all the angles at least up to 15 degrees from the horizontal plane comprising the light source center and all the bearing directions.

c. the light intensity toward an approaching aircraft must be higher than 50 candela.

d. the light unit must not cause damage to an aircraft when the aircraft runs into it, and will not affect the functions of other light units.

e. the light units must conform to the standards listed in 2, e, g and j.

(i)runway threshold lights

1. In the case of runway threshold lights pertaining to a runway intended for instrument landing, high intensity runway threshold lights must be employed, while in other cases, low intensity runway threshold lights must be employed.

2. High Intensity Runway Threshold Lights

a. the light units must be installed on a straight line perpendicularly intersecting the line extended from a runway centerline and 3 meters or less apart from the runway threshold toward the approaching area side, and between the two points each crossing the line extended from the array of runway edge lights in either of the following ways; provided, however, that in the case of those installed at a runway intended for Category II precision approach and Category III precision approach, the light units must be installed pursuant to the provisions of the proviso to sub-subitem i.

i. more than 6 light units must be symmetrically installed about the line extended from a runway centerline at equal intervals (2 of the 6 units must be installed on the line extended from the array of runway edge lights); provided, however, that in the case of those units pertaining to a runway intended for instrument landing by means of precision approach, more than 12 units must be installed symmetrical about the line extended from a runway centerline at equal intervals of 3 meters or less (2 of the 12 units must be installed on the line extended from the array of runway edge lights).

ii. light units must be installed at intervals of 18 to 22.5 meters centering around the line extended from a runway centerline, and 6 or more units must be installed at equal intervals and outside the line symmetrically about the line extended from the runway centerline (2 of the 6 units must be installed on the line extended from the array of runway edge lights); provided, however, that in the case of light units pertaining to a runway intended for instrument landing by means of precision approach, those must be installed at intervals of 18 to 22.5 meters centering around the line extended from a runway centerline, and a number of light units equal to or more than the number required in the case of installation pursuant to the proviso to sub-subitem i must be installed at equal intervals and outside the line symmetrically about the line extended from a runway centerline (2 of the light units must be installed on the line extended from the arrays of runway edge lights)

b. lights must be constant green lights in the case of those indicating the approach end of runway as seen from an aircraft intending to land or constant red lights in the case of those indicating the runway threshold ahead.

c. in the case of light units indicating the approach end of a runway as seen from an aircraft intending to land, all of them must be visually recognizable, and in the case of those indicating the end of runway, more than 6 units must be visually recognizable.

d. The beam of light from the lights for precision approach must be visible from an aircraft intending to land at least within the range listed in the right-hand side column of the following Table according to the respective classes given in the left-hand side column in that Table, and the cross-section surface in the vertical plane perpendicular to the line extended from a runway centerline must be oval.

Types of Runway Threshold	Range of a Beam of Light
Approach end of runway	In azimuth angles, a range comprising the light source center, and 9 degrees from a vertical plane parallel toward the runway centerline and 2 degrees toward the other side (in the case that a light source is on the line extended from the runway centerline, up to 2 degrees from the vertical plane comprising the runway centerline), and another range from 1 to 10 degrees upward from a horizontal plane comprising the light source center
Runway threshold	In azimuth angles, a range comprising the light source center, and up to 6 degrees leftward and rightward respectively from a vertical plane comprising the runway centerline or from a vertical plane parallel to the runway centerline, and another range from 0.25 to 4.75 degrees upward from a horizontal plane comprising the light source center

e. The intensity of a beam of light must be, in the case of those indicating an approach end of runway, higher than 10,000 candela for precision approach, and for other purposes, higher than 1,000 candela, while in the case of those indicating the end of runway higher than 2,500 candela for precision approach, and for other purposes, higher than 250 candela.

f. the light distribution must not be too bright for an aircraft.

g. a light unit, in the case of an embedded type, must be designed to support the load of aircraft wheels passing on it and it will not prevent the landing and taking off of an aircraft, and in the case of other types, when an aircraft runs into it, it will not cause damage to the aircraft and will not affect the functions of other light units.

h. a control system must be installed.

i. a monitoring system must be installed.

j. a backup power-supply system must be provided.

3. Low Intensity Runway Threshold Lights

i. a total of 6 or more light units must be symmetrically installed about the line extended from a runway centerline at equal intervals (2 of the 6 units must be installed on the line extended from the array of runway edge lights).

b. the light intensity toward an approaching aircraft must be higher than 50 candela.

c. the light units must conform to the standards listed in 2, b" c, f, g and j.

(j)wing bar lights

1. More than 10 light units must be installed symmetrically about the line extended from a runway centerline at equal intervals along the line for 10 meters or more outside the intersection of the line extended from the array of runway threshold lights and the line extended from the array of runway edge lights.

2. Lights must be constant green lights.

3. The beam of light from wing bar lights for precision approach must at least include the light source center, within the minimum azimuth as seen from an aircraft intending to land, and is visible in a range up to 9 degrees toward the runway centerline and 5 degrees toward the other side from a vertical plane that is parallel to the runway centerline, and in a range of 0.5 to 10.5 degrees upward from a horizontal plane comprising the light source center; and the cross-section of the beam of light must be oval.

4. The intensity of the beam of light must be higher than 10,000 candela in the case of the light intended for precision approach.

5. The light unit must conform to the standards listed in 2, f, g, h. and i.

(k)runway threshold identification lights

1. light units must be installed so that 1 unit is installed symmetrically about the line extended from a runway centerline for 10 to 20 meters from the intersection of the line extended from of the array of runway threshold lights and the line extended from the array of runway edge lights.

2. Lights must be flashing white lights.

3. The number of flashes per minute must be 60 to 120.

4. The effective intensity of lights must be higher than 5,000 candela.

5. The light distribution must not be too bright for an aircraft.

6. The light unit must not cause damage to an aircraft when the aircraft runs into it, and it will not affect the functions of other light units.

7. A backup power-supply system must be provided.

(l)runway centerline lights

1. The light units must be installed at equal intervals of approximately 15 meters or 30 meters at the places along the runway centerline (in the case of those installed at a runway intended for Category II precision approach or Category III precision approach, at equal intervals of 15 meters only).

2. Lights must be, in the case of those located within a range of 300 meters away from the end of runway as seen from an aircraft intending to land, constant red lights, while in the case of those more than 300 meters and less than900 meters away from the end of runway (in the case of a runway less than 1,800 meters long, one-half of its length), constant lights that are alternate red lights and variable white lights, and in other cases, constant lights that are variable white lights.

3. The beam of light from the lights for precision approach must be visible from an aircraft intending to land at least within the range listed in the right-hand side column of the following Table according to the respective classes given in the left-hand side column in that Table, and the cross-section surface in the vertical plane perpendicular to the line extended from a runway centerline must be oval.

Intervals Between Light Units	Range of a Beam of Light
Approximately 30 meters	In azimuth angles, a range comprising the light source center, and up to 5 degrees leftward and rightward respectively from a vertical plane comprising the runway centerline and another range of 7 degrees upward from a horizontal plane comprising the light source center
Approximately 15 meters	In azimuth angles, a range comprising the light source center, and up to 5 degrees or less leftward and rightward respectively from a vertical plane comprising the runway centerline and another range of 9 degrees upward from a horizontal plane comprising the light source center

4. The intensity of the beam of light of lights intended for precision approach must be higher than 2,500 candela in the case of those installed at the intervals of approximately 15 meters (in the case of those intended for Category III precision approach, higher than 5,000 candela), in the case of those installed at the intervals of 30 meters, higher than 5,000 candela; provided, however, that in the case of red lights, the intensity must be higher than 15% of it.

5. The light distribution must not be too bright for an aircraft.

6. A light unit must be designed to support the load of aircraft wheels passing on it and not to prevent the landing and taking off of an aircraft.

7. A control system must be installed.

8. A monitoring system must be installed.

9. A backup power-supply system must be provided.

(m)runway touchdown zone lights

1. The light units must be installed on a runway from the end of runway to the point 900 meters away from there at equal intervals of 60 meters (in the case of those for a runway intended for Category II or Category III precision approach, at approximately 30 meters intervals), and symmetrical about the runway centerline as shown in the following table; provided, however, that in the case of a runway less than 1,800 meters long, the light units must be installed within a rage not exceeding one-half of the runway length.

Figure (omitted)

2. Lights must be constant lights that are variable white lights

3. The beam of light from runway touchdown zone lights must at least include the light source center, within the azimuth as seen from an aircraft intending to land, and must be visible in a range up to 9 degrees toward the runway centerline and 1 degree toward the other side from a vertical plane that is parallel to the runway centerline, and in a range of 2 to 9 degrees upward from a horizontal plane comprising the light source center; and the cross-section surface of the beam of light in the vertical plane intersecting the line extended from the runway center line must be oval.

4. The intensity of a beam of light must be higher than 5,000 candela.

5. The light distribution must not be too bright for an aircraft.

6. A light unit must be designed to support the load of aircraft wheels passing on it and will not prevent the landing and taking off of an aircraft.

7. A control system must be installed.

8. A monitoring system must be installed.

9. A backup power-supply system must be provided.

(n)runway distance marker lights

1.Light units must be installed at each place at equal intervals of approximately